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Free PMP practice questions

Drill exam-realistic Project Management Professional (PMP) questions by domain, with an explanation on every option — not just the right one. 5 fully worked examples are further down this page, answers included.

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5 sample PMP questions, fully explained

Real questions from the PMP bank, with the answer key and the reasoning behind every option. Read them, then go back up the page and try the rest.

Question 1People

A newly formed agile team asks why the project manager spent the first week with the sponsor and future users agreeing on a one-paragraph statement of the outcome the product must deliver. What is the main purpose of that statement?

Choose one.

  • a
    Replace the product backlog for the first release

    A vision does not list or order work items. The backlog still holds the work; the vision is what the product owner uses to order it.

  • b
    Fix the scope baseline before work can begin

    A one-paragraph outcome statement is not a scope baseline, and an agile team does not freeze scope up front. Scope stays emergent within the vision.

  • c
    Capture each stakeholder's individual requirements in one place

    Collecting individual requirements produces a requirements list, not a single shared outcome. The point of the statement is that everyone agrees on one direction.

  • d
    Guide trade-off decisions toward one shared outcome Correct

    A vision states why the work exists and what outcome counts as success, so the team and stakeholders can make consistent trade-offs when choices arise.

The concept

A common vision is a brief, shared statement of the intended outcome and value of the work. It is the reference point for decisions, not a plan or a scope document.

Why that’s the answer

The statement is short and outcome-focused, and it was agreed with the sponsor and users. That is what a vision is for: giving everyone the same answer to 'why are we doing this?' so trade-offs point the same way. It does not replace the backlog, freeze scope or capture individual requirements.

How to reason it out
  1. Notice the statement is one paragraph about an outcome, not a list of work.
  2. Notice it was agreed jointly by sponsor and users.
  3. Match 'shared outcome that guides choices' to the purpose of a vision.
  4. Rule out options that describe scope, requirements or backlog artifacts.

Exam tip: The vision answers 'why' and guides decisions; the backlog and scope answer 'what'.

PMP Develop a Common Vision: Shared Vision, Ownership and Root Cause — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 2Process

A project manager will lead an internal mobile app for field technicians. Supervisors and technicians disagree about which features matter, and the mobile platform is new to the developers. The sponsor wants a delivery approach recommendation next week. What should the project manager do first?

Choose one.

  • a
    Decompose the expected features into a detailed WBS

    A detailed WBS assumes the features are known and agreed. Here they are disputed, and choosing to decompose them presumes a predictive approach before it has been assessed.

  • b
    Adopt the organization's standard Scrum framework

    Picking a framework by default skips the assessment. The approach should be tailored to the project's needs, not chosen out of habit.

  • c
    Ask the sponsor which delivery approach the organization prefers

    The sponsor asked the project manager for a recommendation. Handing the choice back without analysis gives the sponsor nothing to decide on.

  • d
    Assess how uncertain the requirements and technology are Correct

    The disagreement about features and the unfamiliar platform are the two inputs that decide the approach. Assessing them first gives the recommendation a basis.

The concept

Before recommending a development approach, the project manager assesses the project's needs, complexity and magnitude, especially how uncertain the requirements and the technology are.

Why that’s the answer

Two facts in the stem matter: stakeholders disagree about features (requirements uncertainty) and the platform is new (technical uncertainty). PMI expects the project manager to understand the situation before acting, so assessing these factors comes first. A WBS presumes stable scope, a default framework skips tailoring, and passing the choice back ignores the request for a recommendation.

How to reason it out
  1. Spot the signals: disputed features and an unfamiliar platform.
  2. Recognise both as uncertainty factors that drive the choice of approach.
  3. Apply 'assess before acting': analyse before recommending.
  4. Reject options that presume an approach or hand the decision away.

Exam tip: Assess requirements and technical uncertainty first; the approach recommendation follows from it.

PMP Integrated Project Management Plan: Approach, Estimating and Plan Delivery — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 3Business Environment

A project manager joins a predictive utility project. The sponsor hands over a document that sets who approves budget changes, how often the steering committee reviews progress and which decisions the project manager may take alone. What does this document describe?

Choose one.

  • a
    The project management plan

    The project management plan describes how the work will be executed, monitored and controlled. It operates inside governance; it does not set who holds decision rights above the project manager.

  • b
    The project governance framework Correct

    Governance defines the oversight structure, decision rights, approval levels and review cadence the project operates within. That is exactly what the document sets out.

  • c
    The communications management plan

    The communications plan sets who receives what information, when and how. It does not assign approval authority or decision rights.

  • d
    The project scope statement

    The project scope statement is part of the scope baseline and describes the deliverables, boundaries and acceptance criteria of the work. Approval authority and steering committee cadence are governance, not scope.

The concept

Project governance is the framework of structure, rules, decision rights and oversight within which the project is managed.

Why that’s the answer

The document allocates authority (who approves budget changes), sets oversight (steering committee review cadence) and limits the project manager's discretion. Those three elements define governance. The management plan and communications plan are tempting because they also contain procedures, but they describe how the project team works and communicates, not who decides.

How to reason it out
  1. Look at what the document controls: authority, oversight and decision rights.
  2. Ask whether it tells the team how to do the work or who may decide.
  3. Decision rights and oversight above the project manager are governance.
  4. Plans for executing or communicating the work sit inside that framework.

Exam tip: Governance decides who decides; the management plan decides how the work gets done.

PMP Project Governance: Decision Rights, Escalation Thresholds and Success Metrics — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 4People

At the start of a predictive construction project, the sponsor asks where the project's high-level purpose, measurable objectives and success criteria will be formally recorded and authorized. Which document should the project manager point to?

Choose one.

  • a
    Project charter Correct

    The charter formally authorizes the project and records its purpose, measurable objectives and success criteria. It is the predictive home of the high-level vision.

  • b
    Project scope statement

    The scope statement describes deliverables, exclusions and acceptance criteria in detail. It comes after the charter and does not authorize the project.

  • c
    Stakeholder register

    The stakeholder register lists who is involved and their interests. It does not record the project's purpose or success criteria.

  • d
    Requirements traceability matrix

    The traceability matrix links requirements to deliverables and objectives. It references the objectives but is not where they are authorized.

The concept

In predictive projects the project charter is the document that authorizes the project and captures its purpose, objectives and success criteria: the formal expression of the project vision.

Why that’s the answer

The sponsor asks for three things together (purpose, measurable objectives, success criteria) plus formal authorization. Only the charter does all of these. The scope statement is the tempting choice because it is also an early document, but it details deliverables and does not authorize the project.

How to reason it out
  1. Identify what must be recorded: purpose, objectives, success criteria.
  2. Identify the extra requirement: formal authorization.
  3. Recall that the charter authorizes the project and holds its high-level purpose.
  4. Rule out documents that elaborate scope, people or traceability.

Exam tip: Predictive projects anchor their vision in the charter: purpose, objectives, success criteria and authorization.

PMP Develop a Common Vision: Shared Vision, Ownership and Root Cause — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 5Process

A PMO is reviewing two proposals. Project A will replace 2,000 identical branch printers using a fixed, proven configuration across 300 sites. Project B is a five-person pilot of a new AI triage tool whose users cannot yet describe what they need. Which delivery approach recommendation best fits the two projects?

Choose one.

  • a
    A: short iterations by site wave; B: detailed upfront plan and baseline

    This treats size as if it were complexity. A's large scale does not make it uncertain, and B's small team does not make its requirements stable enough to baseline.

  • b
    A: detailed upfront plan and baseline; B: short iterations with user feedback Correct

    A is large in magnitude but well understood, so a detailed predictive plan fits. B is small but its requirements are unknown, which is where short adaptive iterations with users pay off.

  • c
    A: detailed upfront plan; B: detailed upfront plan with a larger contingency reserve

    Extra contingency covers known risks with uncertain outcomes; it does not help when users cannot yet state what they need. B's requirements have to be discovered, not baselined up front.

  • d
    A: short iterations by site wave; B: short iterations with user feedback

    B suits iterations, but a repeatable rollout of a fixed, proven configuration gains little from iterating; its uncertainty is low, so a predictive plan is more efficient.

The concept

Magnitude (size, number of sites, budget) and complexity (uncertainty in requirements and technology) are separate assessments. The approach follows uncertainty, not size.

Why that’s the answer

Project A is big but routine: a fixed, proven configuration repeated many times, which suits a detailed predictive plan. Project B is small but its users cannot describe their needs, the classic case for short adaptive iterations. Reversing the two is the trap for anyone who equates 'large' with 'complex'; adding contingency reserve to B treats unknown requirements as a risk to be funded rather than discovered; iterating on A spends adaptive overhead on work with little uncertainty.

How to reason it out
  1. Rate each project's magnitude: A large, B small.
  2. Rate each project's uncertainty: A low, B high.
  3. Recall that the approach follows uncertainty, not size.
  4. Choose predictive for the low-uncertainty project and adaptive for the high-uncertainty one.

Exam tip: Big is not the same as complex: choose the approach from uncertainty, then scale the plan to the magnitude.

PMP Integrated Project Management Plan: Approach, Estimating and Plan Delivery — the lesson that teaches this.

The PMP question bank, by domain

The bank is built to the exam's own weighting, so the practice you get reflects the marks that are actually on offer — not whichever domain was easiest to write questions for.

Published PMP practice questions per exam domain
DomainExam weightTopicsQuestions
People33%8344
Process41%10427
Business Environment26%8272
Total100%261043

Practise PMP one domain at a time

How PMP questions are worded

Most PMP questions are not asking whether you can recall a definition. They describe a situation and ask which option satisfies it — so the skill being tested is reading the requirement precisely and eliminating options that fail it.

Single-response vs multiple-response

A single-response question has exactly one right answer. A multiple-response question tells you how many to pick ("Choose TWO") and there is no partial credit — getting one of the two right scores nothing. Read that instruction before you read the options.

Read the last line first

The final sentence is the actual question; everything before it is scenario. Read it first, then read the scenario knowing what you are looking for. It stops you from building an answer in your head that the question never asked for.

Hunt for the qualifier

Most scenarios turn on one word — MOST cost-effective, LEAST operational overhead, with the LEAST latency, without changing application code. Two options are frequently both technically correct, and the qualifier is the only thing separating them.

Eliminate, then choose

Distractors are almost always real PMI services doing a real job — just not this job. Rule out the ones that break a stated constraint before you compare what's left. On a question you truly don't know, eliminating two options turns a guess into a coin flip.

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Source

Exam structure, domain weights and scoring on this page come from the official PMP exam guide.