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SY0-801 practice

SY0-801 sample questions — 25 answered and explained

25 SY0-801 sample questions written to the official CompTIA Security+ exam guide, grouped by exam domain and weighted like the real exam. Each shows the correct answer, why every other option is wrong, and the lesson that teaches it. None of them repeat the examples on the other SY0-801 practice pages.

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Domain 1: General Security Concepts

16% of the SY0-801 exam, so 4 of the 25 questions on this page.

Question 1General Security Concepts

Five administrators share one privileged account. Its password is long, an MFA token is required, and every action is logged to write-once storage. An auditor reports that a destructive change cannot be tied to a person. Which of the following best addresses the finding?

Choose one.

  • a
    Rotate the shared privileged account's password after each use

    Rotation limits how long a leaked password is useful, but each use is still made through the same shared identity, so the log still cannot say which of the five acted.

  • b
    Issue each administrator an individual privileged account Correct

    Unique accounts make every logged action attributable to one person. The existing MFA and write-once logging then become evidence about an individual rather than about a group.

  • c
    Forward administrator logs to a SIEM with integrity checks

    The logs are already tamper-resistant. Protecting them further does not change the fact that they record a shared account, not a person.

  • d
    Require a second hardware token for the shared account

    A stronger sign-in makes the account harder to misuse from outside, but all five administrators would still authenticate as the same identity.

The concept

Non-repudiation and meaningful accounting both depend on unique identities; shared accounts make actions unattributable regardless of how strong the sign-in or how protected the logs are.

Why that’s the answer

The scenario already has strong authentication and integrity-protected logs, which is why the other options are tempting: each strengthens something real. The gap is attribution. A log can only prove what an identity did; if five people share that identity, no amount of password rotation, token strength or log protection can name the person. Individual accounts close the gap.

How to reason it out
  1. List what is already in place: strong sign-in, protected logs.
  2. Find what is missing: a link between an action and one person.
  3. Recognise that a shared identity breaks that link.
  4. Choose the change that gives each person their own identity.

Exam tip: No unique identity, no non-repudiation, however good the logs are.

Security+ SY0-801 Security Controls: Categories, Types, CIA, AAA and Zero Trust — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 2General Security Concepts

An organization replaces a VPN that gave remote staff full internal network access after sign-in. The new design checks each user's identity, device health and context before every connection to each application. Which of the following concepts does the new design apply?

Choose one.

  • a
    Defense in depth

    Defense in depth adds layers of controls. The change here is about when and how trust is granted, not about stacking more layers.

  • b
    Zero Trust model Correct

    Removing broad network trust and verifying identity, device and context for each application request is the core of Zero Trust.

  • c
    Least privilege

    Least privilege limits the rights an account holds. It is related, but the defining change here is continuous, per-request verification instead of trust gained by being on the network.

  • d
    Network segmentation

    Segmentation divides a network into zones, but users inside a zone can still be trusted by location. The design here evaluates every request regardless of location.

The concept

Zero Trust grants no implicit trust based on network location; every access request is evaluated against identity, device and context.

Why that’s the answer

The old VPN granted trust once, by network position; the new design grants access per application after checking who, from what device and under what conditions. That shift from location-based to request-based trust is Zero Trust. Least privilege and segmentation are tempting because Zero Trust designs use them, but neither by itself removes location-based trust.

How to reason it out
  1. Compare old and new: one-time network trust versus per-request checks.
  2. Identify the signals checked: identity, device health, context.
  3. Map 'never trust by location, always verify' to Zero Trust.
  4. Treat segmentation and least privilege as supporting techniques.

Exam tip: Zero Trust: trust nothing by location; verify every request.

Security+ SY0-801 Security Controls: Categories, Types, CIA, AAA and Zero Trust — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 3General Security Concepts

In a Zero Trust architecture, which of the following components makes the decision to grant, deny or revoke a subject's access to a resource?

Choose one.

  • a
    Policy administrator

    The policy administrator executes the decision by establishing or shutting down the session path and instructing the enforcement point. It does not make the decision.

  • b
    Policy enforcement point

    The enforcement point sits in the data path and opens, monitors and closes connections as instructed. It enforces the decision rather than making it.

  • c
    Policy engine Correct

    The policy engine evaluates enterprise policy and external signals and makes the access decision. Other components act on that decision.

  • d
    Identity provider

    An identity provider authenticates the subject and supplies identity information that the decision uses. It is an input, not the decision-maker.

The concept

In NIST's Zero Trust model, the policy engine decides, the policy administrator turns the decision into session commands, and the policy enforcement point enforces it on the connection.

Why that’s the answer

The three similarly named components are easy to mix up. The engine is the brain (decision), the administrator is the messenger that sets up or tears down the session, and the enforcement point is the gate in the data path. An identity provider feeds the engine authentication results.

How to reason it out
  1. Recall the three logical components from NIST SP 800-207.
  2. Decide which one evaluates policy: the engine.
  3. The administrator executes; the enforcement point enforces.
  4. Identity systems are inputs to the decision.

Exam tip: Engine decides, administrator executes, enforcement point enforces.

Security+ SY0-801 Security Controls: Categories, Types, CIA, AAA and Zero Trust — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 4General Security Concepts

A help desk technician needs only to reset user passwords but has been given full domain administrator rights. Which of the following principles does this violate?

Choose one.

  • a
    Separation of duties

    Separation of duties splits a sensitive process between people so no one can complete it alone. The problem here is the size of one person's rights, not how a task is split.

  • b
    Least privilege Correct

    The technician holds far more rights than the job requires. Granting only the permissions a task needs is least privilege.

  • c
    Defense in depth

    Defense in depth is about layering controls. Excessive rights on one account is a permissions problem.

  • d
    Non-repudiation

    Non-repudiation concerns proving who did something. The technician's actions can still be attributed; the issue is that too much is allowed.

The concept

Least privilege grants each user and process only the access needed for its task.

Why that’s the answer

A password-reset role needs a narrow delegated permission, not full domain administration. Separation of duties is the usual near-twin, but it concerns splitting a process between people rather than trimming one person's rights.

How to reason it out
  1. Compare the task with the rights granted.
  2. Rights far beyond the task violate least privilege.
  3. Separation of duties is about splitting tasks, not sizing rights.

Exam tip: Least privilege: the rights the task needs, and no more.

Security+ SY0-801 Security Controls: Categories, Types, CIA, AAA and Zero Trust — the lesson that teaches this.

Domain 2: Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Attacks

24% of the SY0-801 exam, so 6 of the 25 questions on this page.

Question 5Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Attacks

An information sharing community describes indicators and attacker techniques in a standardized JSON-based language and delivers them to member organizations over HTTPS through a client-server API. Which of the following combinations is the community most likely using?

Choose one.

  • a
    STIX for the data, syslog for delivery

    STIX is the right content language, but syslog is a log-forwarding protocol, not an HTTPS client-server API built for exchanging threat intelligence.

  • b
    OpenIOC for the data, TAXII for delivery

    TAXII is the right transport, but OpenIOC is an older XML-based indicator format, not a JSON language that also describes attacker techniques.

  • c
    STIX for the data, TAXII for delivery Correct

    STIX is the structured language for describing threat intelligence (indicators, techniques, actors); TAXII is the HTTPS-based protocol for exchanging it.

  • d
    OpenIOC for the data, syslog for delivery

    Neither half fits: OpenIOC is XML-based rather than JSON, and syslog forwards log messages rather than serving intelligence over an HTTPS API.

The concept

STIX (Structured Threat Information Expression) is the language for threat intelligence content; TAXII (Trusted Automated Exchange of Intelligence Information) is the HTTPS API for transporting it.

Why that’s the answer

The scenario describes two separate jobs: a standardized JSON language for the intelligence itself, and an HTTPS client-server API to deliver it. STIX 2.x is a JSON-based language for indicators, attack patterns and actors, and TAXII 2.x is the HTTPS protocol designed to carry it. OpenIOC is an older XML indicator format, and syslog forwards log messages, so any option using either fails one of the two requirements.

How to reason it out
  1. Split the stem into content (a JSON language) and transport (an HTTPS API).
  2. Match STIX to the content role.
  3. Match TAXII to the transport role.
  4. Reject options that use an XML indicator format or a log-forwarding protocol.

Exam tip: STIX is what is said; TAXII is how it is sent.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Threat Intelligence, CVSS and CVE Explained — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 6Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Attacks

A manufacturer configured its firewall to block every IP address from a free threat feed. Within a day, staff could not reach several legitimate SaaS applications. Analysts found that many entries were shared cloud-hosting addresses added on a single unverified report, and others had stopped hosting malicious activity over a year earlier. Which of the following should the company require in a replacement feed?

Choose one.

  • a
    Higher volume and more frequent updates

    More indicators delivered more often would add to the problem: the issue is that bad and stale entries are blocked, not that too few entries arrive.

  • b
    Confidence scores and indicator expiry Correct

    Confidence scores let the firewall block only high-confidence indicators, and expiry (aging) removes addresses that are no longer malicious - fixing both causes of the outage.

  • c
    STIX formatting and TAXII delivery

    Standard formats make ingestion easier, but the company already ingests the feed automatically. Format does not make the indicators more accurate or current.

  • d
    Wider coverage of global IP ranges

    Broader coverage means more addresses to block, which raises the chance of blocking legitimate shared hosting again.

The concept

Feed quality is about accuracy and relevance as much as speed: confidence ratings separate strong indicators from weak ones, and indicator aging retires addresses that have been reassigned.

Why that’s the answer

Two facts explain the outage. Shared cloud-hosting addresses serve many tenants, so blocking one without confidence context takes out legitimate services; and attacker infrastructure moves on, so an address that was malicious months ago may now belong to someone else. A feed with confidence scores and expiry dates addresses both. More volume or broader coverage makes false positives worse, and standard formats solve an integration problem the company does not have.

How to reason it out
  1. Find the symptom: legitimate services blocked (false positives).
  2. Map the single unverified report to missing confidence ratings.
  3. Map the year-old addresses to missing indicator aging.
  4. Reject changes that add more indicators or only change the format.

Exam tip: A good feed is accurate, relevant and current - confidence scores and indicator aging matter more than volume.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Threat Intelligence, CVSS and CVE Explained — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 7Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Attacks

An analyst researches a new attack campaign using vendor security blogs, public social media posts and government advisories posted on public websites. Which of the following types of intelligence source is the analyst using?

Choose one.

  • a
    Proprietary intelligence

    Proprietary intelligence is sold by a vendor under a subscription or license. Everything the analyst used is freely available to the public.

  • b
    Human intelligence (HUMINT)

    HUMINT is gathered from people - interviews, contacts or informants - not from material published on public websites.

  • c
    Internal intelligence

    Internal intelligence comes from the organization's own logs, incidents and telemetry. The analyst is using external, public sources.

  • d
    Open-source intelligence Correct

    Information that anyone can access publicly - blogs, social media, public advisories - is open-source intelligence (OSINT).

The concept

OSINT is intelligence gathered from publicly available sources such as websites, blogs, social media and public advisories.

Why that’s the answer

The deciding detail is that every source is publicly available. That makes it open-source intelligence. Proprietary intelligence requires a paid subscription, human intelligence comes from people rather than published material, and internal intelligence comes from the organization's own systems.

How to reason it out
  1. List the sources used.
  2. Check whether each is publicly accessible.
  3. Public and external = OSINT.

Exam tip: Publicly available = OSINT; paid = proprietary; gathered from people = HUMINT; your own logs = internal.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Threat Intelligence, CVSS and CVE Explained — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 8Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Attacks

A regional hospital wants threat intelligence focused on attacks against healthcare providers, shared by peer organizations that agree to protect what is shared. Which of the following sources is the BEST fit?

Choose one.

  • a
    A government CERT advisory

    A national CERT publishes advisories for everyone. They are not focused on healthcare and are not peer organizations sharing their own incidents under an agreement.

  • b
    A commercial threat feed

    A commercial feed can be high quality, but it comes from a vendor, not from peer healthcare organizations sharing their own experience under an agreement.

  • c
    An industry ISAC Correct

    An Information Sharing and Analysis Center (ISAC) is a sector-based community whose members share threat information with each other under agreed handling rules - here, the healthcare ISAC.

  • d
    An open-source threat feed

    An open-source feed is publicly available to anyone, so there is no peer community and no agreement to protect what is shared.

The concept

ISACs are industry-specific information sharing communities in which member organizations exchange threat intelligence under agreed terms.

Why that’s the answer

Two requirements decide the answer: intelligence specific to the healthcare sector, and sharing among peer organizations that protect what they receive. An ISAC (for healthcare, Health-ISAC) is built for exactly that. A commercial feed and a government CERT are not peer communities, and an open-source feed is public, so none meets both requirements.

How to reason it out
  1. Note the two requirements: sector focus and trusted peer sharing.
  2. Recall which source is organized by industry with member sharing rules.
  3. Check that the alternatives miss at least one requirement.

Exam tip: Sector-specific intelligence shared among peers = ISAC.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Threat Intelligence, CVSS and CVE Explained — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 9Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Attacks

A security team wants intelligence that reflects the attacks actually reaching its own network, such as repeated failed logins and connections blocked at its firewall. Which of the following sources should the team use?

Choose one.

  • a
    OSINT reports

    Open-source reports describe attacks seen elsewhere. They cannot show what is reaching this team's network.

  • b
    Vendor feeds

    A vendor feed describes threats observed across the vendor's customer base, not the specific events at this team's firewall.

  • c
    ISAC bulletins

    ISAC bulletins summarize what members of a sector are seeing; they do not record events on this organization's own network.

  • d
    Internal logs Correct

    The organization's own logs and telemetry show the attacks that actually hit its systems - this is internal intelligence.

The concept

Internal intelligence comes from the organization's own logs, alerts and incident history and is the most relevant source for what is targeting that organization.

Why that’s the answer

Failed logins and blocked connections are recorded by the organization's own systems. External sources - OSINT, vendor feeds and ISAC bulletins - describe what others have seen and add context, but only internal data shows what actually reached this network.

How to reason it out
  1. Note the requirement: attacks reaching this organization.
  2. Ask which source records events on its own systems.
  3. Internal logs are the only source that does.

Exam tip: What is hitting you is in your own logs; external sources add context.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Threat Intelligence, CVSS and CVE Explained — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 10Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Attacks

After an intelligence report is distributed, the security operations manager tells the intelligence team which indicators were useful and which caused false positives. Which phase of the threat intelligence life cycle does this represent?

Choose one.

  • a
    Analysis

    Analysis is when the intelligence team interprets processed data to produce findings. The consumer's response after delivery is a later phase.

  • b
    Collection

    Collection gathers raw data from sources. The manager's comments are a review of finished intelligence, not new raw data.

  • c
    Processing

    Processing normalizes and filters raw data before analysis. It happens before the report exists.

  • d
    Feedback Correct

    Feedback is the consumer telling the producers what worked and what did not, so the next cycle can be improved.

The concept

The threat intelligence life cycle runs requirements, collection, processing, analysis, dissemination and feedback, with feedback steering the next cycle.

Why that’s the answer

The report has already been disseminated, and the manager is evaluating its usefulness for the team that produced it. That is feedback: it refines requirements and sources for the next iteration. Collection, processing and analysis all come before a report is delivered.

How to reason it out
  1. Place the event on the timeline: after the report was distributed.
  2. Identify who is acting: the consumer, reviewing usefulness.
  3. The consumer's evaluation returned to the producers is feedback.

Exam tip: Feedback closes the loop: consumers tell producers what was useful.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Threat Intelligence, CVSS and CVE Explained — the lesson that teaches this.

Domain 3: Security Architecture

19% of the SY0-801 exam, so 5 of the 25 questions on this page.

Question 11Security Architecture

A bank keeps its core account database in its own data center and runs customer-facing web servers in a public cloud that query that database. Which of the following is the most significant new security consideration introduced by this design?

Choose one.

  • a
    Patching the cloud provider's hypervisor

    The hypervisor belongs to the provider in every public cloud service model; the bank cannot patch it.

  • b
    Isolating the database with an air gap

    An air gap would cut the database off completely, and the web servers need to query it, so this would break the design.

  • c
    Protecting traffic between the environments Correct

    The web tier in the cloud must reach the database on-premises, so the connection between the two environments becomes something the bank has to secure and monitor.

  • d
    Encrypting database backups stored on-premises

    Encrypting the on-premises database backups was needed before the cloud web tier existed; the hybrid link does not introduce it.

The concept

A hybrid cloud joins environments, and the link between them becomes part of the attack surface.

Why that’s the answer

This is a hybrid design: an on-premises data center and a public cloud working as one system. What is new compared with either environment alone is the interconnection, typically a VPN or dedicated link, plus the need for consistent identity and policy on both sides. Hypervisor patching is the provider's duty, an air gap would stop the web tier from working, and backup encryption on-premises is an existing control rather than one the hybrid design introduces.

How to reason it out
  1. Identify the model: on-premises and public cloud used together, which is hybrid.
  2. Ask what exists now that did not exist before: a connection between the two.
  3. Eliminate the provider-owned task and the option that breaks the requirement.
  4. Choose securing the interconnection.

Exam tip: Hybrid cloud adds an interconnection that must be secured like any other entry point.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Security Architecture Models: Cloud, On-Premises, OT and Segmentation — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 12Security Architecture

A cloud team defines its virtual networks, servers and firewall rules in template files stored in a version control system, and a pipeline deploys them automatically. Which of the following does this describe?

Choose one.

  • a
    Serverless computing

    Serverless runs event-driven code without managing servers; this team is defining and deploying the servers and networks themselves.

  • b
    Microservices

    Microservices is a way of splitting an application into independent services, not a way of defining infrastructure.

  • c
    Infrastructure as Code Correct

    Describing infrastructure in machine-readable templates kept in version control and deployed automatically is the definition of IaC.

  • d
    Software-defined networking

    SDN separates network control from forwarding hardware so networks are managed by software controllers; it does not describe servers and firewall rules kept as versioned templates and deployed by a pipeline.

The concept

Infrastructure as Code defines and deploys infrastructure from version-controlled templates.

Why that’s the answer

IaC replaces manual console configuration with templates that describe networks, servers and security rules. Because the templates are code, they can be reviewed, versioned and deployed the same way every time. Serverless and microservices are application architectures, and software-defined networking separates network control from forwarding hardware, so none of them describes servers and firewall rules kept as versioned templates and deployed by a pipeline.

How to reason it out
  1. Note that infrastructure is written as template files.
  2. Note the version control and automated deployment.
  3. Match infrastructure defined and deployed as code to IaC.

Exam tip: Infrastructure written as versioned templates and deployed automatically is IaC.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Security Architecture Models: Cloud, On-Premises, OT and Segmentation — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 13Security Architecture

A security manager supports moving the company's cloud deployments from manual console changes to Infrastructure as Code. Which of the following is the primary security benefit she expects?

Choose one.

  • a
    Consistent and repeatable configurations Correct

    Every environment built from the same reviewed template gets the same settings, which reduces manual errors and configuration drift.

  • b
    Built-in encryption of the stored data

    IaC deploys whatever the template specifies; encryption happens only if the template configures it.

  • c
    Physical isolation between workloads

    IaC changes how infrastructure is defined, not where it runs; it does not provide physical separation.

  • d
    Less reliance on a single cloud provider's tools

    IaC templates are often provider-specific; reducing dependence on one provider is a multicloud goal, not what IaC delivers.

The concept

IaC makes deployments consistent, repeatable and reviewable.

Why that’s the answer

Manual changes in a console differ from one person and one day to the next, and they leave no reviewable record. With IaC, the configuration is written once, reviewed like code and applied identically everywhere, so environments match a known baseline. IaC does not encrypt data unless told to, does not change where workloads physically run and does not by itself reduce dependence on a provider.

How to reason it out
  1. Identify what changes: configuration moves from manual clicks to templates.
  2. Ask what templates guarantee: the same result every deployment.
  3. Connect that consistency to fewer misconfigurations.

Exam tip: IaC's security value is consistency: the same reviewed configuration every time.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Security Architecture Models: Cloud, On-Premises, OT and Segmentation — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 14Security Architecture

A storage permission that allows public read access was found in 40 cloud environments. All 40 were deployed from the same IaC template, and none has been changed since deployment. Which of the following would best prevent this from recurring?

Choose one.

  • a
    Drift detection in each environment

    Drift detection flags differences between live resources and the template; here the live resources match the template exactly, so nothing would be flagged.

  • b
    Scanning templates before deployment Correct

    The flaw is in the template itself, so checking templates for insecure settings in the pipeline catches it once, before it is copied into every environment.

  • c
    Encryption of the storage at rest

    Encryption at rest protects stored media; the provider decrypts data for anyone the permission allows to read, so public access stays open.

  • d
    Moving environments to a private cloud

    Changing the deployment model does not fix a permission defined in the template; the same template would recreate the exposure there.

The concept

IaC replicates whatever is in the template, including its mistakes.

Why that’s the answer

Two facts decide this. First, IaC copies a template's settings into every environment, so one flaw became 40 exposures; the fix belongs where the flaw lives, in the template, checked before deployment. Second, drift detection compares live resources to the template, and these environments were never changed, so drift detection reports nothing. Encryption at rest and a different deployment model leave the public-read permission in place.

How to reason it out
  1. Locate the source of the flaw: the shared template, not later changes.
  2. Recall what drift detection compares: live state against the template.
  3. See that the live state matches the flawed template, so drift detection is silent.
  4. Choose the control that inspects templates before they are deployed.

Exam tip: A flaw in an IaC template spreads everywhere it is deployed; scan the template, because drift detection only catches changes from it.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Security Architecture Models: Cloud, On-Premises, OT and Segmentation — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 15Security Architecture

A security team is extending its program to cover the systems that control physical processes on a manufacturing line. Which of the following is typically the highest priority for these OT systems?

Choose one.

  • a
    Confidentiality of stored data

    Confidentiality usually leads in IT systems that hold sensitive data; in OT, protecting the process and the people around it comes first.

  • b
    Rapid deployment of new patches

    OT patches often need vendor approval and planned downtime, so rapid patching is usually not possible and is not the top priority.

  • c
    Elastic scaling of the plant's compute capacity

    Elastic scaling is a cloud business consideration; OT systems are fixed installations sized for one process.

  • d
    Availability and safety of the process Correct

    OT controls physical equipment, so an outage or malfunction can stop production or injure people; keeping the process running safely comes first.

The concept

Operational technology prioritizes availability and safety over confidentiality.

Why that’s the answer

OT systems, such as controllers on a production line, act on the physical world. If they stop or behave unpredictably, production halts and people can be hurt. That is why OT security puts availability and safety first, while traditional IT usually emphasizes confidentiality. It is also why OT patching is slow and carefully scheduled rather than rapid.

How to reason it out
  1. Note that the systems control physical processes.
  2. Ask what failure looks like: stopped production or physical harm.
  3. Match that to availability and safety as the top priority.

Exam tip: In OT, keeping the process running safely outranks protecting data confidentiality.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Security Architecture Models: Cloud, On-Premises, OT and Segmentation — the lesson that teaches this.

Domain 4: Security Operations

27% of the SY0-801 exam, so 7 of the 25 questions on this page.

Question 16Security Operations

A scan of a newly built web server reports an FTP service that nothing uses, a vendor default administrator account, and directory listing enabled. Which of the following mitigations addresses all three findings?

Choose one.

  • a
    Placing the server behind a web application firewall

    A WAF filters HTTP requests and might hide directory listings, but it does not remove the FTP service or the default account.

  • b
    Moving the server into its own network segment

    Segmentation limits who can reach the server, but the unused service, default account and listing setting all remain.

  • c
    Hardening the server to a secure baseline Correct

    Hardening removes unused services, disables or renames default accounts and turns off unnecessary features such as directory listing, which fixes every finding on the server itself.

  • d
    Installing EDR on the server

    EDR detects and responds to malicious activity; it does not remove the misconfigurations that create the exposure.

The concept

Hardening reduces a system's attack surface by removing what it does not need and changing insecure defaults.

Why that’s the answer

All three findings are configuration weaknesses on the server: an unneeded service, a default credential and an unnecessary feature. The only option that removes them at the source is hardening to a secure baseline. A WAF and segmentation reduce exposure around the server and EDR adds detection, but each leaves the weaknesses in place.

How to reason it out
  1. Classify the findings: unused service, default account, unneeded feature.
  2. Note that all are fixed by changing the server's own configuration.
  3. Choose hardening, which removes them rather than shielding them.

Exam tip: Unneeded services, defaults and features are fixed by hardening the host, not by putting controls in front of it.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Mitigating Controls: Firewalls, IDS/IPS, EDR, NAC and Email Security — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 17Security Operations

Developers want every pull request checked for SQL injection patterns and unsafe function calls before the code is merged, without deploying or running the application. Which of the following should the team add to the pipeline?

Choose one.

  • a
    Static code analysis Correct

    Static analysis examines source code without executing it and flags insecure patterns such as unsanitized queries and unsafe functions, so it fits a pull-request check.

  • b
    Code signing

    Code signing proves who published code and that it was not altered; it says nothing about whether the code contains flaws.

  • c
    Secrets scanning

    Secrets scanning looks for credentials, keys and tokens committed to the repository, not injection flaws or unsafe calls.

  • d
    Web application firewall

    A WAF filters requests to a running application in production; it does not review code before merge.

The concept

Static code analysis (SAST) finds security flaws in source code without running the program.

Why that’s the answer

The check must run on source code at pull-request time and must not need a running application. That is static code analysis. Secrets scanning also inspects the repository but looks for credentials, code signing deals with authenticity and integrity, and a WAF protects a deployed application at runtime.

How to reason it out
  1. Note the timing: before merge.
  2. Note the constraint: the application is not running.
  3. Note the target: insecure coding patterns.
  4. Choose static code analysis.

Exam tip: Find flaws in code without running it: static analysis. Prove who published code: code signing.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Mitigating Controls: Firewalls, IDS/IPS, EDR, NAC and Email Security — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 18Security Operations

An online store's perimeter firewall allows TCP 443 to the web servers and filters only on addresses and ports. Logs show attackers entering SQL statements into the checkout form. Which of the following should be added to block these requests?

Choose one.

  • a
    Web application firewall Correct

    A WAF inspects HTTP requests at Layer 7 and blocks injection payloads in form fields before they reach the application.

  • b
    Additional Layer 4 firewall rule

    A Layer 4 rule sees only addresses, ports and protocol; the malicious requests use the same port 443 as legitimate shoppers.

  • c
    NIDS on a switch SPAN port

    A NIDS on a SPAN port watches a copy of traffic and can only alert, so the requests would still reach the application.

  • d
    Centralized web proxy

    A centralized proxy filters employees' outbound browsing; it does not sit in front of the store's inbound web traffic.

The concept

A web application firewall filters HTTP at Layer 7, where application attacks such as SQL injection live.

Why that’s the answer

The attack is inside allowed HTTPS requests, so anything that filters by address and port cannot tell it apart from real orders. A WAF understands HTTP requests and parameters and can block injection patterns. The NIDS only alerts, and a forward proxy controls outbound user browsing rather than inbound traffic to a site.

How to reason it out
  1. Note that the attack arrives on an allowed port.
  2. Note that the malicious part is in the HTTP request content.
  3. Choose the Layer 7 control placed in front of web applications: a WAF.

Exam tip: Attacks inside allowed web traffic need Layer 7 inspection: put a WAF in front of the application.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Mitigating Controls: Firewalls, IDS/IPS, EDR, NAC and Email Security — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 19Security Operations

An outbound firewall rule allows TCP 443 to any destination. Investigators find that malware on a workstation opened an SSH session to an external server over port 443. Which of the following changes would stop this while still allowing normal HTTPS browsing?

Choose one.

  • a
    Layer 7 policy that permits only TLS on port 443 Correct

    An application-aware rule identifies the protocol inside the connection, so SSH on port 443 no longer matches while real TLS browsing still does.

  • b
    Layer 4 rule that blocks outbound TCP port 22

    Blocking port 22 does nothing here, because the session already uses port 443; Layer 4 sees only the port, not the protocol.

  • c
    WAF placed in front of the internal web servers

    A WAF protects inbound traffic to web applications; it does not inspect workstations' outbound connections.

  • d
    Rate limiting on outbound TCP 443 connections

    Rate limiting slows the number of connections but still lets a single SSH session through on port 443.

The concept

Layer 4 filtering sees addresses and ports; Layer 7 filtering identifies the application protocol carried in the connection.

Why that’s the answer

Two facts combine. A port-based (Layer 4) rule cannot tell SSH from HTTPS when both use TCP 443, so a port 22 block is irrelevant. And the fix must leave browsing working, which rules out simply blocking 443. An application-aware Layer 7 policy that allows only TLS on 443 meets both needs. The WAF is a real Layer 7 control but faces the wrong direction, and rate limiting does not stop a single tunnel.

How to reason it out
  1. Note that the tunnel hides on an allowed port.
  2. Recognise that a port rule cannot separate protocols on the same port.
  3. Keep browsing working, so 443 cannot be closed.
  4. Choose an application-aware Layer 7 policy on the outbound path.

Exam tip: When attackers reuse an allowed port, only a Layer 7 rule that checks the protocol can stop them.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Mitigating Controls: Firewalls, IDS/IPS, EDR, NAC and Email Security — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 20Security Operations

A firewall evaluates rules top-down, applies the first match and ends with an implicit deny. Rule 10 is DENY src any dst 10.1.5.0/24 tcp/any. Application servers in 10.1.2.0/24 must reach the database at 10.1.5.20 on TCP 1433. Which of the following meets the requirement?

Choose one.

  • a
    PERMIT src 10.1.2.0/24 dst 10.1.5.20 tcp/1433, placed below rule 10

    The direction is right, but rule 10 matches the traffic first and denies it, so this rule is never reached.

  • b
    PERMIT src 10.1.2.0/24 dst 10.1.5.20 tcp/1433, placed above rule 10 Correct

    Correct direction (application subnet to database) and correct order: it matches before the broad deny in rule 10.

  • c
    PERMIT src 10.1.5.20 dst 10.1.2.0/24 tcp/1433, placed above rule 10

    The order is right, but source and destination are reversed: it lets the database open connections to the application servers, not the other way round.

  • d
    PERMIT src 10.1.5.20 dst 10.1.2.0/24 tcp/1433, placed below rule 10

    Both the direction and the position are wrong: the source and destination are reversed and the rule sits below the deny.

The concept

Rule-based firewalls match rules in order, stop at the first match and deny anything left unmatched.

Why that’s the answer

Two facts are needed. The connection starts at the application servers, so they are the source and the database is the destination on TCP 1433. And with first-match processing, a permit placed below a broader deny that covers the same traffic is never evaluated. Only the rule with the right direction placed above rule 10 works.

How to reason it out
  1. Identify who initiates the connection: the application servers.
  2. Write the rule with that subnet as source and the database as destination on TCP 1433.
  3. Check rule order: the broad deny in rule 10 matches first.
  4. Place the permit above rule 10.

Exam tip: Source is who starts the connection, and in a first-match rule set a specific permit must sit above the broad deny.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Mitigating Controls: Firewalls, IDS/IPS, EDR, NAC and Email Security — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 21Security Operations

A public login API receives thousands of password guesses per minute from a small set of addresses. The security team must slow the guessing without locking out the real account owners. Which of the following should the team implement?

Choose one.

  • a
    Account lockout after five failures

    Lockout stops guessing against an account but also locks out its real owner, which the requirement rules out.

  • b
    Rate limiting requests per source Correct

    Capping how many login requests each source can send per minute slows the guessing sharply while each real user's occasional login still succeeds.

  • c
    Input validation on the login fields

    Input validation rejects malformed input; password guesses are well-formed requests and would pass.

  • d
    Host-based IDS on the API servers

    A HIDS might alert on the activity, but it does not slow or block the requests.

The concept

Rate limiting caps the number of requests a client can make in a time window, blunting brute force and floods.

Why that’s the answer

The traffic is many well-formed requests from a few sources, and the constraint forbids locking accounts. Rate limiting per source addresses volume from those sources without touching the accounts themselves. Lockout is the obvious control but breaks the stated constraint; validation and HIDS do not reduce the request rate.

How to reason it out
  1. Characterise the attack: high request volume from few sources.
  2. Apply the constraint: do not lock out owners.
  3. Choose a control that limits request rate per source.

Exam tip: High-volume guessing from few sources: rate-limit the requests, rather than locking the accounts.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Mitigating Controls: Firewalls, IDS/IPS, EDR, NAC and Email Security — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 22Security Operations

Remote staff connect directly to the internet from home, and the company does not use a VPN. The company must block gambling and malware sites on those laptops wherever they are. Which of the following best meets the requirement?

Choose one.

  • a
    Agent-based content filter Correct

    A filtering agent on each laptop enforces the URL policy locally, so it works on any network without routing traffic through the office.

  • b
    Centralized proxy at headquarters

    A central proxy filters only traffic that passes through it; home laptops without a VPN never reach it.

  • c
    Application allow list on each laptop

    An allow list controls which programs may run; the browser is an approved program, so it does not decide which sites the browser visits.

  • d
    Host firewall rule blocking outbound port 80

    Most sites use HTTPS on port 443, and a port rule cannot tell a gambling site from a legitimate one, so it cannot filter by site category.

The concept

Content filtering can be enforced centrally (proxy) for on-network traffic or by an agent on the device for roaming users.

Why that’s the answer

The deciding fact is that the laptops' traffic never passes through any company network, so a proxy at headquarters never sees it. The filtering must run on the laptop, which leaves three on-device options. An application allow list governs which programs run, not which sites the browser reaches, and a host firewall port rule cannot classify sites by category. An agent-based content filter enforces a URL category policy on the device itself, so it applies at home, in hotels and in the office.

How to reason it out
  1. Note where the traffic flows: straight from home to the internet.
  2. Eliminate controls that only see traffic passing through headquarters.
  3. Among on-device controls, pick the one that filters by site category: an agent-based content filter.

Exam tip: Roaming devices off the corporate network need agent-based filtering; a central proxy only sees traffic sent through it.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Mitigating Controls: Firewalls, IDS/IPS, EDR, NAC and Email Security — the lesson that teaches this.

Domain 5: Security Program Management and Oversight

14% of the SY0-801 exam, so 3 of the 25 questions on this page.

Question 23Security Program Management and Oversight

A company's security policy requires physical protection of its data centers, but its three sites use different visitor escort rules and camera retention periods. The CISO wants requirements every site must meet and auditors can check, while each site decides how to meet them. Which of the following should the CISO publish?

Choose one.

  • a
    Physical security procedure

    A procedure prescribes the steps to follow, which would take away each site's choice of how to meet the requirements.

  • b
    Physical security guideline

    A guideline only recommends, so sites could keep their inconsistent practices and still be compliant.

  • c
    Physical security standard Correct

    A standard sets mandatory, measurable requirements (what must be achieved) and leaves the implementation steps to each site.

  • d
    Revised security policy

    The policy already requires physical protection; restating intent does not create measurable requirements for each site.

The concept

Standards make policy intent measurable and mandatory; procedures say how; guidelines are optional.

Why that’s the answer

Two constraints decide it. The requirements must be mandatory and measurable, which rules out a guideline (optional) and a revised policy (high-level intent). Each site must still choose how to comply, which rules out a procedure (prescribed steps). Only a standard is both mandatory and focused on what must be achieved rather than how.

How to reason it out
  1. List the constraints: mandatory, measurable, local choice of method.
  2. Remove the optional document: guideline.
  3. Remove the document that prescribes steps: procedure.
  4. Remove the document that only states intent: policy.
  5. Choose the standard.

Exam tip: A standard says what must be achieved; a procedure says how.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Policies, Standards, Procedures and Guidelines — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 24Security Program Management and Oversight

A developer is writing a TLS 1.3 client library and needs the authoritative technical specification of the handshake so the library interoperates with other implementations. Which of the following should the developer consult?

Choose one.

  • a
    Industry benchmark

    A benchmark recommends secure settings for a platform; it does not define how a protocol's handshake works.

  • b
    Request for comments Correct

    TLS 1.3 is specified in an IETF RFC, which is the authoritative protocol definition other implementations follow.

  • c
    Implementation guide

    An implementation guide covers deploying one vendor's product, not the protocol specification all vendors implement.

  • d
    Security advisory

    An advisory describes a specific vulnerability or threat, not the full specification of a protocol.

The concept

RFCs are IETF publications; standards-track RFCs are the authoritative specifications of internet protocols.

Why that’s the answer

Interoperating with other TLS 1.3 implementations requires following the same protocol specification, and TLS 1.3 is defined in an IETF Request for Comments (RFC 8446). Benchmarks, implementation guides and advisories all assume the protocol already exists rather than defining it.

How to reason it out
  1. Note the need: an authoritative protocol specification.
  2. Recall who defines internet protocols: the IETF.
  3. Recall the IETF's document series: RFCs.
  4. Choose the RFC.

Exam tip: Internet protocol specifications are published as RFCs.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Policies, Standards, Procedures and Guidelines — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 25Security Program Management and Oversight

When a new employee joins, HR and IT must create accounts, assign groups and issue a badge in the same order with the same approvals, regardless of who performs the work. Which of the following documents should describe this process?

Choose one.

  • a
    Access control policy

    The access control policy sets the rules for granting and reviewing access, not the ordered steps HR and IT follow.

  • b
    Account provisioning standard

    A standard sets the requirements accounts must meet, such as naming or group rules, not the ordered steps HR and IT perform each time.

  • c
    Standard operating procedure Correct

    An SOP documents a routine, recurring process step by step so every person performs it the same way.

  • d
    Identity reference architecture

    A reference architecture describes how identity system components fit together, not an onboarding workflow people follow.

The concept

A standard operating procedure gives the ordered steps for a routine process so it is performed consistently.

Why that’s the answer

The key requirements are a recurring business process, a fixed order of steps and the same result no matter who does it. That is the purpose of an SOP. The access control policy is the tempting option, but policies state rules and authority; the SOP is how those rules are carried out each time.

How to reason it out
  1. Note that the task recurs with every new hire.
  2. Note the need for a fixed order and consistent results.
  3. Separate rules (policy) from steps (procedure).
  4. Choose the SOP.

Exam tip: Routine process, same steps every time: standard operating procedure.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-801 Policies, Standards, Procedures and Guidelines — the lesson that teaches this.

Keep going with SY0-801

SY0-801 practice by domain

SY0-801 sample questions: your questions

No. Real exam questions are confidential. These are original questions written to the skills in the official SY0-801 exam guide, so they test the same knowledge in the same style without being copies of the exam.

Source

The domains and weights on this page come from the official SY0-801 exam guide.