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SOA-C03 practice

Free SOA-C03 practice questions

Drill exam-realistic AWS Certified CloudOps Engineer – Associate questions by domain, with an explanation on every option — not just the right one. 5 fully worked examples are further down this page, answers included.

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5 sample SOA-C03 questions, fully explained

Real questions from the SOA-C03 bank, with the answer key and the reasoning behind every option. Read them, then go back up the page and try the rest.

Question 1Monitoring, Logging, Analysis, Remediation, and Performance Optimization

An on-call engineer is investigating a report of high memory usage on an EC2 instance, but the CloudWatch console shows CPUUtilization and NetworkIn for the instance and no memory metrics at all. What should the engineer do to make memory utilization available in CloudWatch?

Choose one.

  • a
    Enable detailed monitoring on the instance.

    Detailed monitoring only raises the frequency of the existing hypervisor metrics from 5 minutes to 1 minute. It adds no new metrics, so memory still would not appear.

  • b
    Install and configure the CloudWatch agent on the instance. Correct

    Memory is an in-guest metric that the hypervisor cannot see. The CloudWatch agent runs inside the operating system and publishes memory, disk-space, and swap metrics to CloudWatch.

  • c
    Create a metric filter on the instance's log group.

    Metric filters count pattern matches in log data that already exists. They cannot generate memory utilization measurements that nothing is collecting.

  • d
    Attach an IAM role with broader CloudWatch permissions to the instance.

    Permissions alone do not produce metrics. Without the agent installed, no process inside the OS is measuring or publishing memory usage.

The concept

Default EC2 metrics come from the hypervisor, which can only observe the instance from outside: CPU, network, disk I/O, and status checks. Memory utilization, disk-space utilization, and swap usage are internal to the guest OS, so they are never in the default metric set.

Why that’s the answer

Installing and configuring the CloudWatch agent is the only way to collect in-guest metrics such as memory, because the agent runs inside the operating system and publishes what the hypervisor cannot see. Detailed monitoring is tempting but only increases the frequency of the same hypervisor metrics; a metric filter works on logs, not OS measurements; and IAM changes grant permission without creating any data source.

How to reason it out
  1. Confirm the missing metric is an in-guest metric (memory, disk space, swap) rather than a hypervisor metric.
  2. Install the CloudWatch agent on the instance.
  3. Configure the agent's JSON configuration to collect the memory metrics required.
  4. Verify the new metrics arrive in CloudWatch and build alarms or dashboards on them.

Exam tip: Memory and disk-space metrics missing from CloudWatch always point to installing the CloudWatch agent — detailed monitoring never adds new metrics.

CloudWatch Metrics, Alarms, and Log Filters for SOA-C03 — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 2Reliability and Business Continuity

A CloudOps engineer manages a web application on an EC2 Auto Scaling group. Management requires that the fleet's average CPU utilization stay near 50% as traffic rises and falls throughout the day. Which scaling configuration meets this requirement with the LEAST operational overhead?

Choose one.

  • a
    A target tracking policy that holds the group's average CPU at 50% Correct

    Correct. Target tracking needs only the metric and the target value; AWS creates and manages the CloudWatch alarms and scales out and in to hold average CPU near 50%.

  • b
    Step scaling policies with CloudWatch alarms at 60%, 70% and 80% average CPU

    Step scaling works, but the engineer must design and maintain the alarms and adjustment tiers, and it reacts to threshold breaches rather than holding a value — more overhead for a looser fit.

  • c
    A simple scaling policy that adds one instance when average CPU exceeds 50%

    Simple scaling makes one fixed adjustment and then waits out a cooldown, and this policy only scales out. It lags changes in load and never brings CPU back up to the target by removing instances.

  • d
    Scheduled actions that raise capacity at the hours when CPU usually peaks

    Scheduled actions change capacity by the clock, not by measured CPU, so they cannot hold the average near 50% when real traffic departs from the usual pattern.

The concept

Target tracking scaling holds a chosen metric — such as average CPU utilization — at a target value by automatically creating and managing the CloudWatch alarms and scaling in both directions.

Why that’s the answer

The requirement 'keep a metric near a value' maps directly to target tracking, which needs only the metric and the target number — the least configuration of any policy type. Step scaling could approximate the behavior but demands hand-built alarms and tiered adjustments; simple scaling is legacy and makes only one adjustment per cooldown window; scheduled scaling follows the clock, not the metric.

How to reason it out
  1. Translate the requirement: 'keep average CPU near 50%' is a target-value goal, not a threshold or schedule.
  2. Create a target tracking policy on the Auto Scaling group with ASGAverageCPUUtilization as the metric and 50 as the target.
  3. Let AWS manage the generated alarms — do not edit or delete them.
  4. Set instance warmup so booting instances do not distort the aggregate metric.

Exam tip: When a requirement says keep a metric near a value, the answer is a target tracking policy — the modern default with the least operational overhead.

Auto Scaling and Elasticity: EC2, Caching, and Database Scaling — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 3Deployment, Provisioning, and Automation

During an account cleanup, a CloudOps engineer deregistered dozens of outdated AMIs that had been shared with two other accounts. The next monthly bill still shows the same EBS snapshot storage charges. What explains the charges?

Choose one.

  • a
    The snapshots that backed the AMIs stay in the account until they are deleted separately. Correct

    Deregistering an AMI only removes the ability to launch from it; the EBS snapshots behind it remain and keep accruing storage charges until someone deletes them.

  • b
    The snapshots are held for a fixed retention period before EC2 deletes them by itself.

    EC2 has no automatic snapshot cleanup tied to AMI deregistration; without a separate deletion (manual or a lifecycle policy) the snapshots persist indefinitely.

  • c
    The snapshots stay billed to the owner because the AMIs had been shared with other accounts.

    Sharing grants launch permissions only; it does not change snapshot lifecycle. The charges would continue whether or not the AMIs had been shared.

  • d
    The snapshots keep billing until the EBS volumes they were taken from are deleted too.

    Snapshots are billed independently of their source volumes; deleting or keeping the volumes does not stop snapshot storage charges.

The concept

Deregistering an AMI and deleting its backing EBS snapshots are two separate operations, so image cleanup is always a two-step job.

Why that’s the answer

Deregistration only prevents new launches from the image; the EBS snapshots referenced in its block device mappings stay in the account and keep billing until deleted. There is no built-in retention countdown that removes them, sharing affects launch permissions rather than storage, and snapshots do not depend on their source volumes for billing.

How to reason it out
  1. Before deregistering, record the snapshot IDs in each AMI's block device mappings.
  2. Deregister the AMI so no new instances can launch from it.
  3. Delete the orphaned snapshots explicitly (or let an Amazon Data Lifecycle Manager policy handle AMI deprecation and snapshot deletion).
  4. Confirm in Cost Explorer that EBS snapshot storage charges fall.

Exam tip: Deregistering an AMI never deletes its snapshots - delete them separately or keep paying for them.

CloudFormation, StackSets, and golden images: provisioning for SOA-C03 — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 4Security and Compliance

A security audit finds IAM users in an AWS account who call AWS APIs with access keys and sign in to the console without a second factor. The auditor requires that these users be unable to do anything except set up their own MFA device until they authenticate with one. The administrator has already reviewed the account password policy. What should the administrator do?

Choose one.

  • a
    Require MFA in the IAM account password policy and set passwords to expire after 90 days.

    The account password policy controls console password rules such as length, character types, reuse and expiry. It has no MFA setting, so this cannot enforce the requirement.

  • b
    Attach a group policy that denies actions except MFA self-management when BoolIfExists aws:MultiFactorAuthPresent is false. Correct

    This is the AWS-documented pattern. BoolIfExists also matches requests that carry no MFA context at all, such as long-term access-key calls, so those users can do nothing except register an MFA device until they sign in with it.

  • c
    Attach a group policy that denies actions except MFA self-management when aws:MultiFactorAuthAge exceeds 3600 seconds.

    aws:MultiFactorAuthAge is absent from requests made without MFA, and a numeric condition on a missing key evaluates to false, so the deny never applies to exactly the users the auditor is worried about.

  • d
    Deploy the AWS Config managed rule iam-user-mfa-enabled with an SSM Automation remediation for users it flags.

    The rule detects users without an MFA device after the fact. A remediation runbook cannot register a device on a user's behalf, and nothing stops those users from calling APIs in the meantime.

The concept

The IAM account password policy cannot require MFA. MFA is enforced with an identity policy that denies everything except MFA self-management when the request lacks MFA context.

Why that’s the answer

A Deny statement conditioned on BoolIfExists aws:MultiFactorAuthPresent = false matches both console sessions without MFA and access-key requests, which carry no MFA key at all, so the users are locked out until they authenticate with a device. The password policy has no MFA option. The MultiFactorAuthAge variant looks equivalent but fails open: the key is missing when MFA was not used, so the condition is false and nothing is denied. AWS Config only reports users without a device.

How to reason it out
  1. Rule out the password policy: it only governs console password rules.
  2. Rule out detective tools (Config rules) when the requirement is to block actions.
  3. Write a Deny with an exception for the MFA self-management actions.
  4. Use BoolIfExists on aws:MultiFactorAuthPresent so requests without any MFA context are also denied.

Exam tip: Enforce MFA with a Deny on BoolIfExists aws:MultiFactorAuthPresent = false; the password policy has no MFA switch.

IAM, AWS Organizations, and Compliance Tools for CloudOps (SOA-C03) — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 5Networking and Content Delivery

A CloudOps engineer is designing subnets for a new VPC and allocates a 10.0.4.0/28 CIDR block to a small management subnet. How many usable IP addresses will be available for resources in this subnet?

Choose one.

  • a
    11 Correct

    AWS reserves 5 IPs in every subnet — the network address, VPC router, DNS resolver, one for future use, and the broadcast address — leaving 16 − 5 = 11 usable.

  • b
    16

    A /28 contains 16 total addresses, but AWS reserves 5 of them in every subnet, so 16 are never all usable.

  • c
    14

    Subtracting only the network and broadcast addresses is traditional networking math; AWS reserves five addresses per subnet, not two.

  • d
    13

    This assumes only three reserved addresses; AWS holds back five, including the +.3 future-use address and the broadcast address.

The concept

In every VPC subnet, AWS reserves five IP addresses that cannot be assigned to resources: the network address, the VPC router (+1), the Amazon DNS resolver (+2), a future-use address (+3), and the broadcast address (the last address, held back even though broadcast is not supported).

Why that’s the answer

A /28 block has 16 total addresses, and after AWS's five reservations, 11 remain assignable. The answer 14 applies traditional networking (network + broadcast reserved) but misses the three AWS-specific reservations, 16 ignores reservations entirely, and 13 undercounts the reserved set. This matters operationally because small subnets fill up fast — load balancer nodes and interface endpoints each consume addresses too.

How to reason it out
  1. Compute the total addresses in the CIDR: a /28 yields 2^(32−28) = 16.
  2. Subtract the five AWS-reserved addresses (network, router, DNS, future use, broadcast).
  3. Confirm the result: 16 − 5 = 11 usable addresses.
  4. When sizing subnets, add headroom for ENIs consumed by load balancers, endpoints, and NAT gateways.

Exam tip: Every AWS subnet loses exactly five IP addresses to reservations — a /28 gives 11 usable addresses, not 14 or 16.

VPC Networking and Private Connectivity for SOA-C03 — the lesson that teaches this.

The SOA-C03 question bank, by domain

The bank is built to the exam's own weighting, so the practice you get reflects the marks that are actually on offer — not whichever domain was easiest to write questions for.

Published SOA-C03 practice questions per exam domain
DomainExam weightTopicsQuestions
Monitoring, Logging, Analysis, Remediation, and Performance Optimization22%3114
Reliability and Business Continuity22%3114
Deployment, Provisioning, and Automation22%2114
Security and Compliance16%284
Networking and Content Delivery18%393
Total100%13519

Practise SOA-C03 one domain at a time

How SOA-C03 questions are worded

Most SOA-C03 questions are not asking whether you can recall a definition. They describe a situation and ask which option satisfies it — so the skill being tested is reading the requirement precisely and eliminating options that fail it.

Single-response vs multiple-response

A single-response question has exactly one right answer. A multiple-response question tells you how many to pick ("Choose TWO") and there is no partial credit — getting one of the two right scores nothing. Read that instruction before you read the options.

Read the last line first

The final sentence is the actual question; everything before it is scenario. Read it first, then read the scenario knowing what you are looking for. It stops you from building an answer in your head that the question never asked for.

Hunt for the qualifier

Most scenarios turn on one word — MOST cost-effective, LEAST operational overhead, with the LEAST latency, without changing application code. Two options are frequently both technically correct, and the qualifier is the only thing separating them.

Eliminate, then choose

Distractors are almost always real AWS services doing a real job — just not this job. Rule out the ones that break a stated constraint before you compare what's left. On a question you truly don't know, eliminating two options turns a guess into a coin flip.

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Beyond SOA-C03 practice

SOA-C03 practice questions: your questions

Yes. You can answer 5 questions a day with no account at all, and a free account raises that to 30 a day across the full 519-question SOA-C03 bank, with an explanation on every option. Pro removes the daily cap entirely.

Source

Exam structure, domain weights and scoring on this page come from the official SOA-C03 exam guide.