SaveMyCert
Log in
5 of 5 free questions left today·for unlimited practice
SOA-C03 quick-recall

SOA-C03 flashcards

Flip through 13 cards — one per SOA-C03 topic — and self-test the key exam facts. Free, no account needed. These exams reward fast recognition, which is exactly what flashcards train.

1 / 13

Every SOA-C03 flashcard, by exam domain

103 key facts across 5 domains — the full deck below, so you can scan it even without the interactive cards.

Monitoring, Logging, Analysis, Remediation, and Performance Optimization

22% of the exam
  • Default EC2 metrics never include memory or disk-space utilization — collecting those requires the CloudWatch agent.
  • Standard EC2 monitoring is 5-minute metrics; detailed monitoring is 1-minute, costs extra, and adds frequency, not new metrics.
  • Custom metrics are 1-minute standard resolution or 1-second high resolution; high-resolution alarms evaluate on 10- or 30-second periods.
  • Metric filters turn log patterns into alarmable metrics but only match data ingested after creation; subscription filters stream the events themselves to Kinesis Data Streams, Firehose, or Lambda.
  • An alarm has three states — OK, ALARM, INSUFFICIENT_DATA — and M-out-of-N datapoints plus a deliberate treat-missing-data choice keep it from flapping or lying.
  • Composite alarms combine child alarms with AND/OR/NOT to suppress noise, and they act by notifying (SNS), not by taking EC2 or scaling actions.
  • An alarm notification needs an SNS topic in the same Region and a confirmed subscription — "alarm fired, no email" means check the subscription first.
  • CloudTrail answers who did what and when (API audit, management vs data events); CloudWatch answers how the system is performing.
  • StatusCheckFailed_System means AWS infrastructure under the instance failed — the recover action migrates it to healthy hardware, preserving instance ID, IP addresses, and EBS volumes.
  • StatusCheckFailed_Instance means an OS-level problem (exhausted memory, corrupted filesystem, bad network config, failed kernel) — recovery can't fix it; reboot or repair the OS.
  • Auto Scaling remediates fleets by terminating and replacing unhealthy instances — replacement, not repair; add ELB health checks so failing the load balancer counts as unhealthy.
  • An EventBridge rule that never fires: check the event pattern against a real sample event, confirm the rule is enabled, verify target permissions, and confirm the event reaches that bus in that Region.
  • Input transformers reshape event JSON before delivery — enrich or trim the payload with no Lambda in the middle.
  • AWS-prefixed Automation runbooks like AWS-RestartEC2Instance are predefined; author custom YAML/JSON runbooks for multi-step, workload-specific remediation, and prefer runbooks over custom code for least operational overhead.
  • State Manager associations continuously reapply desired configuration — the drift-correction answer; Run Command is for ad hoc execution at scale without SSH.
  • AWS Health Dashboard events (account-specific issues and planned maintenance) flow into EventBridge, turning upcoming hardware retirements into proactive remediation triggers.
  • Compute Optimizer turns CloudWatch history into over/under-provisioned classifications with specific EC2, EBS, and Lambda recommendations — Trusted Advisor only flags, it doesn't size.
  • A T-family instance that slows under sustained load has drained its CPU credits — check CPUCreditBalance; fix with unlimited mode or a fixed-performance family.
  • gp3 includes 3,000 IOPS and 125 MiB/s at any size and decouples performance from capacity; gp2 ties IOPS to size and throttles when BurstBalance hits zero.
  • Elastic Volumes modifies volume type, size, and IOPS on a live attached volume — gp2 to gp3 migration needs no downtime.
  • The instance's own EBS-optimized throughput cap can bottleneck before any volume limit — if volumes look healthy but storage is slow, check the instance ceiling.
  • Multipart upload for large objects, Transfer Acceleration for distant clients, DataSync for bulk or recurring transfers, prefixes for request-rate parallelism.
  • EFS = Linux NFS, FSx for Windows = SMB with Active Directory, FSx for Lustre = HPC/ML scratch, FSx for NetApp ONTAP = multiprotocol.
  • RDS Proxy pools connections to absorb connection storms; read replicas offload reads; Performance Insights names the top SQL and wait events behind DB load.

Reliability and Business Continuity

22% of the exam
  • "Keep a metric near a value" (for example, average CPU at 50%) → target tracking, the default scaling-policy answer.
  • Simple scaling is legacy: one adjustment per cooldown; prefer target tracking or step scaling for reactive load.
  • Fix a flapping ASG with target tracking, longer instance warmup, or wider thresholds — not a shorter cooldown.
  • Alarms in breach but nothing launching → desired equals max, or launches are failing; read the activity history and check quotas.
  • Redis when the cache needs replication, failover, or persistence; Memcached for simple horizontal ephemeral caching.
  • RDS read replicas are asynchronous — alarm on ReplicaLag; Aurora runs up to 15 low-lag replicas behind a reader endpoint.
  • DynamoDB throttling means the wrong capacity mode or limits: on-demand for spiky traffic, provisioned plus auto scaling for steady traffic.
  • CloudFront and ElastiCache absorb load before it reaches compute — raise the cache hit ratio before resizing the fleet.
  • "Static IP per AZ", UDP, or extreme TCP performance → NLB; path, host, or header routing → ALB.
  • All targets unhealthy is systemic: health-check path or port, a security group blocking probes from the ALB, or an app-wide non-2xx response.
  • 502 = bad response or reset from a target; 503 = no healthy (or no registered) targets; 504 = target timeout.
  • Route 53 health checkers live outside your VPC — health-check private resources with alarm-based checks.
  • Failover routing is active-passive: a PRIMARY record with a health check (or Evaluate Target Health on an alias) and a SECONDARY that serves only when the primary fails.
  • The RDS Multi-AZ standby is never readable — synchronous, automatic-failover availability; read replicas are asynchronous, readable, and promoted manually.
  • ELB heals within a Region in seconds; Route 53 fails over across Regions at DNS speed, limited by TTL caching.
  • One NAT gateway shared across AZs is a single-AZ dependency — deploy one per AZ for static stability.
  • RPO = maximum acceptable data loss, RTO = maximum acceptable downtime — translate every scenario into these two numbers first.
  • AWS Backup centralizes schedules, retention, cold-storage lifecycle, and cross-Region/cross-account copies; tag-based resource assignment is the at-scale answer.
  • RDS automated backups (retention up to 35 days) enable point-in-time restore; manual snapshots are kept until you delete them.
  • DynamoDB PITR restores to any second in the last 35 days; on-demand backups persist until deleted.
  • Every restore creates a NEW resource with a new endpoint or name — repointing the application belongs in the runbook.
  • S3 versioning turns a delete into a delete marker — remove the marker to restore; replication needs versioning and copies only new objects by default.
  • DR patterns by rising cost and falling RTO/RPO: backup and restore → pilot light → warm standby → multi-site active/active; pick the cheapest that meets the objectives.
  • Multi-AZ is availability, not backup — corruption replicates to the standby; and an untested restore proves nothing about RTO or RPO.

Deployment, Provisioning, and Automation

22% of the exam
  • Deregistering an AMI does not delete its EBS snapshots — delete them separately or storage costs continue.
  • A change set previews every Add/Modify/Remove and flags Replacement — a replaced resource is deleted and recreated, so check stateful resources first.
  • Stack policies protect resources during updates; DeletionPolicy Retain or Snapshot protects them at deletion and replacement time.
  • A resource changed outside CloudFormation is the cue for drift detection — it reports drift but never reverts it.
  • ROLLBACK_COMPLETE after a failed create means delete and recreate; UPDATE_ROLLBACK_FAILED is recovered with continue update rollback.
  • Read the first failure event in the stack's event history — later failures are usually cascades.
  • StackSets deploy one template to many accounts and Regions (org integration auto-deploys to new accounts); AWS RAM shares one existing resource instead of duplicating it.
  • Every subnet loses 5 IP addresses to AWS reservations — size CIDRs for peak scale-out, not steady state.
  • A managed instance needs three things: a running SSM Agent, an instance profile with AmazonSSMManagedInstanceCore, and a network path to the Systems Manager endpoints.
  • Shell access without SSH keys, bastion hosts, or open inbound ports → Session Manager, with sessions logged to CloudWatch Logs or S3.
  • Configuration that must stay enforced and self-correct → a State Manager association, not a one-off script.
  • OS patching with approval rules, maintenance windows, and compliance reporting → Patch Manager running AWS-RunPatchBaseline (Scan reports, Install applies).
  • EventBridge rules are the automation router: match an event pattern or a schedule, then invoke Lambda, runbooks, or queues.
  • S3 Event Notifications deliver to Lambda, SQS, or SNS; enable EventBridge on the bucket when you need richer filtering or more targets.
  • Prefer managed, declarative automation over custom Lambda code whenever the question asks for the least operational overhead.

Security and Compliance

16% of the exam
  • Only IAM identity and resource policies grant access — SCPs and permissions boundaries can only cap it, and an explicit deny anywhere always wins.
  • Enforce MFA with a Deny policy conditioned on aws:MultiFactorAuthPresent — the account password policy cannot require MFA.
  • Cross-account access needs an allow on both sides: the caller's identity policy and the target's resource-based policy.
  • Who did it → CloudTrail. Would this policy allow it → IAM policy simulator. What is exposed outside the account → IAM Access Analyzer.
  • Block Regions org-wide with an SCP on aws:RequestedRegion (exempting global services via NotAction) — IAM policies cannot reach every account.
  • SCPs do not affect the management account, and "SCP allows but user still denied" just means no IAM policy grants the action.
  • AWS Config detects noncompliance and can auto-remediate via SSM Automation runbooks; conformance packs deploy rule sets at scale.
  • Trusted Advisor flags open security groups, missing root MFA, and public S3 buckets — you remediate, ideally via EventBridge automation.
  • You cannot encrypt an existing EBS volume or RDS instance in place — snapshot, copy the snapshot with encryption, restore, and cut over.
  • The KMS key policy is the primary authority: an IAM allow is useless if the key policy neither permits the principal nor delegates to IAM.
  • ACM certificates auto-renew only while their DNS validation records exist; imported certificates never auto-renew.
  • Enforce TLS on S3 with a bucket-policy Deny when aws:SecureTransport is false; on an ALB, redirect the HTTP listener to HTTPS.
  • Secrets Manager when you need automatic rotation (managed for RDS); Parameter Store SecureString for free, static, KMS-encrypted secrets.
  • GuardDuty = active threats, Inspector = CVEs and vulnerabilities, Macie = sensitive data in S3, Config = configuration compliance, Security Hub = aggregation and standards.
  • GuardDuty analyzes CloudTrail, VPC Flow Logs, and DNS logs — it detects threats; it never blocks them.
  • Findings → EventBridge rule → SNS plus Lambda/SSM runbook is the standard automated remediation loop for every findings service.

Networking and Content Delivery

18% of the exam
  • A subnet is public only if its route table sends 0.0.0.0/0 to an internet gateway and its instances have public IPs.
  • Every subnet loses five IPs: network address, VPC router, DNS resolver, future-use, and broadcast.
  • IPv6 outbound-only means an egress-only internet gateway — there is no IPv6 NAT.
  • Security groups are stateful and allow-only; NACLs are stateless, ordered by rule number, can deny — and need ephemeral-port rules.
  • Private S3 or DynamoDB access at no cost is a gateway endpoint; most other services need an interface endpoint (PrivateLink).
  • VPC peering is never transitive and requires non-overlapping CIDRs; many-VPC transitive routing is Transit Gateway.
  • Every Site-to-Site VPN connection provides two tunnels — configure both for high availability.
  • NAT data-processing charges on S3 traffic are the exam's favorite cost cut: add a gateway endpoint.
  • Alias records work at the zone apex and are free to query when targeting AWS resources; CNAMEs cannot sit at the apex.
  • On-prem must resolve VPC names: inbound Resolver endpoint. VPCs must resolve on-prem domains: outbound endpoint plus forwarding rules.
  • Failover routing is active-passive with health checks; multivalue answer returns up to eight healthy records but is not a load balancer.
  • Lower a record's TTL well before a migration so cached answers age out fast, then raise it after the cutover.
  • Public DNS query logs cover queries to your public zone; Resolver query logs cover queries from inside your VPCs.
  • CloudFront custom-domain certificates must come from ACM in us-east-1 — no other Region works.
  • Prefer versioned object names over invalidations; invalidations bill per path beyond the monthly free allowance, and a wildcard counts as one path.
  • Static anycast IPs, TCP/UDP, or instant regional failover means Global Accelerator; caching HTTP content means CloudFront.
  • Security groups are stateful; network ACLs are stateless — a rejected reply to an accepted request is always a NACL problem.
  • ACCEPT then REJECT for the same flow in VPC Flow Logs means a NACL is blocking the return on ephemeral ports 1024-65535.
  • No flow-log record at all means packets never reached the ENI — suspect routing or DNS, not security rules.
  • A NAT gateway must sit in a public subnet with an IGW route; the private subnet routes 0.0.0.0/0 to the NAT gateway.
  • VPC peering is non-transitive and needs routes on both sides; Transit Gateway needs routes in both the VPC and TGW route tables.
  • VPC Reachability Analyzer names the exact blocking component through static analysis, without sending a packet.
  • Low CloudFront hit ratio: shrink the cache key, raise TTLs, and version object names instead of invalidating.
  • VPN tunnel up but no traffic: check static routes or BGP propagation first, then security groups for the on-premises CIDR.

Keep studying SOA-C03

SOA-C03 flashcards: your questions

Yes — the whole SOA-C03 deck is free and needs no account. Create a free account only if you want to save progress and drill full practice questions and mock exams.