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CISA practice

CISA sample questions — 25 answered and explained

25 CISA sample questions written to the official ISACA Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) exam guide, grouped by exam domain and weighted like the real exam. Each shows the correct answer, why every other option is wrong, and the lesson that teaches it. None of them repeat the examples on the other CISA practice pages.

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Domain 1: Information Systems Auditing Process

18% of the CISA exam, so 5 of the 25 questions on this page.

Question 1Information Systems Auditing Process

Six months ago an IS auditor helped design the access approval workflow for a new HR system. The auditor is now assigned to audit that system's access controls. The auditor should FIRST:

Choose one.

  • a
    disclose the earlier design role to audit management before starting Correct

    Auditing your own design is a self-review threat; disclosing it lets audit management decide on reassignment or other safeguards.

  • b
    proceed, since knowing the design will make the testing more efficient

    Familiarity may save time, but it is the source of the self-review threat, not a reason to ignore it.

  • c
    proceed, but have a second auditor review the access-control workpapers

    A workpaper review is a possible safeguard, but audit management must first know about the impairment to choose the right one.

  • d
    ask the HR system owner to confirm in writing that they have no objection

    Independence is judged by the audit function, not waived by the auditee.

The concept

An auditor who designed or implemented a control has a self-review threat to objectivity when auditing it.

Why that’s the answer

Objectivity is impaired, in fact or appearance, when an auditor evaluates their own earlier work. The first step is to disclose the impairment to audit management, who can reassign the work or apply safeguards. Choosing a safeguard yourself, relying on familiarity or asking the auditee to waive the conflict all skip the disclosure that the decision depends on.

How to reason it out
  1. Identify the threat: the auditor would review their own design.
  2. Recall that impairments must be disclosed to the appropriate party.
  3. Leave the choice of safeguard to audit management.
  4. Disclose before starting fieldwork.

Exam tip: Disclose any impairment to audit management before the work begins.

CISA Audit Planning: Standards, Ethics, Risk-Based Planning and Controls — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 2Information Systems Auditing Process

An audit committee wants to give the IS audit function the strongest organizational independence. Which reporting arrangement is BEST?

Choose one.

  • a
    Functionally to the CEO and administratively to the audit committee

    This reverses the lines: the CEO would control scope and findings, which the committee needs to oversee directly.

  • b
    Functionally and administratively to the chief information officer

    The CIO runs the IT functions that IS audit examines, so this line would let the auditee shape the audits.

  • c
    Functionally to the audit committee and administratively to the CEO Correct

    A functional line to the audit committee protects scope and findings, and an administrative line to the CEO gives authority without reporting to an audited area.

  • d
    Functionally and administratively to the head of risk management

    Risk management is a second-line function that audit gives assurance over, so reporting to it reduces independence.

The concept

Organizational independence comes from a functional reporting line to the audit committee.

Why that’s the answer

The audit committee oversees the audit function's plan, scope and results; the administrative line covers day-to-day matters such as budget and HR. Pairing a functional line to the committee with an administrative line to a senior executive outside the audited areas, typically the CEO, gives the most independence. The reversed arrangement hands control of findings to management, and reporting to the CIO or to risk management puts audit under areas it reviews.

How to reason it out
  1. Separate functional reporting (scope, findings) from administrative reporting.
  2. Place the functional line with the audit committee.
  3. Keep both lines away from areas audit reviews.
  4. Choose the committee functionally and the CEO administratively.

Exam tip: Report functionally to the audit committee, administratively to a senior executive outside audited areas.

CISA Audit Planning: Standards, Ethics, Risk-Based Planning and Controls — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 3Information Systems Auditing Process

During a pre-implementation review of a new billing system, the project manager asks the IS auditor to set up the segregation-of-duties rules in the system because the team is short-staffed. The IS auditor should:

Choose one.

  • a
    configure the rules, then exclude the billing system from that auditor's future audit work

    Reassignment reduces the self-review threat later, but the auditor would still be performing a management task now.

  • b
    configure the rules and disclose that work in the pre-implementation review report

    Disclosure does not remove the impairment; the review would be assessing controls the auditor built.

  • c
    decline to comment on the rules until the post-implementation review takes place

    Commenting on control design before go-live is a legitimate audit role; waiting lets weak rules reach production.

  • d
    recommend the rules the system needs and leave their configuration to the project team Correct

    Advising on control requirements keeps the auditor objective; configuring them would make the auditor part of the control being audited.

The concept

An IS auditor can advise on controls during implementation but must not take on management's responsibility for building them.

Why that’s the answer

Pre-implementation reviews are where auditors add value by recommending controls early. Independence is kept as long as management makes and implements the decisions. Setting up the rules is an operational task that would place the auditor inside the control environment; disclosure or later reassignment softens but does not remove that conflict. Refusing to comment at all throws away the purpose of the review.

How to reason it out
  1. Separate advising on controls from implementing them.
  2. Recall that implementing controls impairs objectivity.
  3. Check whether a safeguard removes the impairment or only discloses it.
  4. Recommend the rules and leave configuration to management.

Exam tip: Auditors recommend controls; management implements them.

CISA Audit Planning: Standards, Ethics, Risk-Based Planning and Controls — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 4Information Systems Auditing Process

Which type of audit combines financial and operational audit steps to evaluate a process's internal controls and the information systems that support it together?

Choose one.

  • a
    compliance audit

    A compliance audit tests adherence to specific laws, regulations or standards rather than combining financial and operational steps.

  • b
    integrated audit Correct

    An integrated audit combines financial and operational audit steps, often with IS auditors and financial auditors working as one team.

  • c
    forensic audit

    A forensic audit gathers evidence about suspected fraud or crime for possible legal proceedings.

  • d
    administrative audit

    An administrative audit looks at the efficiency of operational productivity in an organization, not a combined financial and operational review.

The concept

An integrated audit combines financial and operational audit steps to assess controls over a process and its systems.

Why that’s the answer

CISA audit types are defined by purpose. When financial and operational auditing are combined, so that controls over a business process and its supporting systems are assessed together, the engagement is an integrated audit. Compliance audits test conformance to requirements, forensic audits support investigations, and administrative audits examine operational efficiency.

How to reason it out
  1. Identify the defining feature: financial and operational steps combined.
  2. Match each audit type to its purpose.
  3. Rule out compliance, forensic and administrative purposes.
  4. Choose integrated audit.

Exam tip: Combining financial and operational audit steps is an integrated audit.

CISA Audit Planning: Standards, Ethics, Risk-Based Planning and Controls — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 5Information Systems Auditing Process

Management suspects that an employee has been altering vendor bank details in the payables system and may take legal action. Which type of engagement BEST fits this need?

Choose one.

  • a
    a compliance audit of each breach of the vendor master data procedure

    A compliance audit would show where the procedure was not followed, but it does not gather evidence to legal standards.

  • b
    an operational audit tracing the employee's changes through payables

    An operational audit evaluates how well the process and its controls work; it is not designed to build evidence of what the employee did for court.

  • c
    an integrated audit of payables reporting and the employee's access

    An integrated audit gives combined financial and IS control assurance; it is not designed for an investigation that may go to court.

  • d
    a forensic audit of the employee's changes to vendor master data Correct

    Suspected fraud with possible legal action calls for a forensic audit, which collects and handles evidence so it stays admissible.

The concept

A forensic audit discovers, documents and preserves evidence of fraud or crime so it can support legal or disciplinary action.

Why that’s the answer

The deciding facts are suspected wrongdoing and possible legal action. Evidence must then be collected with a chain of custody and methods that keep it admissible, which is what a forensic audit does. Compliance, operational and integrated audits evaluate controls and conformance; they may reveal weaknesses, but they are not designed to build a legal case.

How to reason it out
  1. Note the trigger: suspected fraud and possible legal action.
  2. Ask which audit type is built to preserve evidence for proceedings.
  3. Set aside control-evaluation audit types.
  4. Choose the forensic audit.

Exam tip: Suspected fraud headed for court needs a forensic audit.

CISA Audit Planning: Standards, Ethics, Risk-Based Planning and Controls — the lesson that teaches this.

Domain 2: Governance and Management of IT

18% of the CISA exam, so 5 of the 25 questions on this page.

Question 6Governance and Management of IT

Which combination of duties in an IT department presents the GREATEST segregation of duties concern?

Choose one.

  • a
    a programmer who can also move code changes into production Correct

    Combining development with production migration lets one person introduce and deploy unauthorized or untested code.

  • b
    a help desk analyst who can also reset forgotten user passwords

    Password resets are a normal help desk task when identity is verified; the combination is not incompatible.

  • c
    a network administrator who can also monitor network performance

    Performance monitoring is part of administering the network and does not let one person conceal an unauthorized change.

  • d
    a backup operator who can also log the receipt of backup media

    Some segregation matrices flag operator and media-librarian duties as incompatible, so this is a minor concern, but logging media receipt carries far less risk than a programmer changing production.

The concept

Development and production migration are incompatible duties; combined, one person can deploy unauthorized code undetected.

Why that’s the answer

Segregation of duties separates tasks so that no single person can both make and conceal an error or an unauthorized change. A programmer who can also promote code into production can write, approve in effect, and deploy changes alone, bypassing change control. The other combinations are routine pairings within a single function and do not give one person end-to-end control over a sensitive process.

How to reason it out
  1. Ask whether one person could both make and hide an unauthorized change.
  2. Recognise development plus production access as the classic incompatible pair.
  3. Treat the other pairs as routine tasks within one role.
  4. Choose the programmer with production migration rights.

Exam tip: Never let the person who writes code also move it into production.

CISA IT Governance: Strategy, Committees, Policies and Enterprise Architecture — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 7Governance and Management of IT

In a small IT department, one administrator manages the database and also administers its user access. Management cannot add staff or budget. The IS auditor should recommend:

Choose one.

  • a
    rotating the administrator into a different role at regular intervals

    Job rotation needs a second qualified person to rotate with, which the small department does not have.

  • b
    having the administrator review their own activity logs each week

    Self-review is not independent; the person who could misuse access would be checking their own actions.

  • c
    outsourcing database administration to an external managed service provider

    Outsourcing could split the duties but breaks the stated constraint that no extra budget is available.

  • d
    independent review of the administrator's activity logs by a manager Correct

    When duties cannot be separated, an independent detective review is the standard compensating control and costs little.

The concept

When incompatible duties cannot be segregated, use compensating controls such as independent review of activity.

Why that’s the answer

Combining database administration with security administration lets one person grant themselves access and act on data without anyone noticing. Small organizations often cannot split the roles, so the accepted answer is a compensating control: someone independent, such as a manager, reviews the administrator's logged activity. Rotation needs another person, self-review is not independent, and outsourcing violates the no-budget constraint.

How to reason it out
  1. Accept that the duties cannot be separated under the constraints given.
  2. Look for a compensating control that an independent person performs.
  3. Rule out options needing staff or budget the scenario says are unavailable.
  4. Choose independent log review.

Exam tip: If you cannot separate duties, add independent review as a compensating control.

CISA IT Governance: Strategy, Committees, Policies and Enterprise Architecture — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 8Governance and Management of IT

An IS auditor notes that the CIO reports to the CFO, and IT projects for finance are consistently approved ahead of those for sales and operations. Which is the BEST recommendation?

Choose one.

  • a
    having a steering committee that represents each business unit set IT priorities Correct

    A business-wide prioritization body removes the single-function bias regardless of where the CIO reports.

  • b
    moving the CIO's reporting line from the CFO to the chief operating officer

    Changing the reporting line may simply shift the favoritism to operations rather than create a fair, enterprise-wide process.

  • c
    allocating each business unit an equal share of the annual IT project budget

    Equal shares ignore relative business value; some units may need far more or less, so this replaces bias with arbitrary allocation.

  • d
    asking the CFO to consult other unit heads before approving IT project priorities

    Consultation leaves the decision with the conflicted party, so priorities can still favor finance.

The concept

Bias from an IT reporting line is fixed by enterprise-wide, business-represented prioritization rather than by moving the bias or splitting budgets mechanically.

Why that’s the answer

When IT reports into one function, that function's projects tend to win. Several remedies sound plausible: changing the reporting line, equal budgets or consultation. Moving the CIO only relocates the bias; equal shares ignore value; consultation leaves the final call with the conflicted CFO. A steering committee on which every business unit sits, deciding priorities against enterprise objectives, addresses the conflict at its source.

How to reason it out
  1. Identify the conflict: one function controls IT priorities.
  2. Test each option on whether it removes the bias or merely moves it.
  3. Reject mechanical budget splits that ignore business value.
  4. Choose enterprise-wide prioritization by a representative committee.

Exam tip: Fix reporting-line bias with business-wide prioritization, not by moving the reporting line.

CISA IT Governance: Strategy, Committees, Policies and Enterprise Architecture — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 9Governance and Management of IT

A document requires that all user passwords be at least 14 characters and changed after any suspected compromise. This document is BEST described as a:

Choose one.

  • a
    guideline

    Guidelines give recommended practice that staff may adapt; they are not mandatory requirements.

  • b
    procedure

    Procedures give the step-by-step instructions for performing a task, not the required values themselves.

  • c
    standard Correct

    Standards set mandatory, specific and measurable requirements that put a policy into effect.

  • d
    policy

    Policies state high-level management intent and direction; specific values like lengths belong in standards.

The concept

Policy states intent; standards set mandatory specifics; procedures give steps; guidelines advise.

Why that’s the answer

The document sets precise, mandatory values (a minimum length and a required change condition). That is what a standard does: it turns a policy's intent, such as protecting accounts, into specific requirements everyone must meet. A policy is broader and changes rarely; a procedure tells someone how to carry out a task step by step; a guideline is advisory.

How to reason it out
  1. Note that the document sets specific, mandatory values.
  2. Recall the role of each document type in the hierarchy.
  3. Match mandatory specifics to a standard.
  4. Rule out the advisory guideline and the step-by-step procedure.

Exam tip: Specific mandatory values belong in standards, not in policies.

CISA IT Governance: Strategy, Committees, Policies and Enterprise Architecture — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 10Governance and Management of IT

An IS auditor reviewing the information security policy finds that it names firewall products, lists permitted port numbers and gives configuration steps. The auditor should recommend:

Choose one.

  • a
    reviewing the policy each month so that the technical detail stays current

    Monthly review treats the symptom; the policy would still need senior approval for every port or product change.

  • b
    having the network team approve the policy instead of senior management

    Policy needs senior-management approval to carry authority; giving it to the network team weakens it.

  • c
    reissuing the policy as a guideline so teams can adapt it as they need

    Turning it into a guideline would make the security requirements optional, which removes the control.

  • d
    moving the technical detail into standards and procedures under the policy Correct

    Keeping policy at the level of intent and moving technical specifics into standards and procedures keeps each document stable and usable.

The concept

Policies state high-level intent; technical specifics belong in standards and procedures beneath them.

Why that’s the answer

A policy full of product names and port numbers goes out of date quickly and needs senior approval for each technical change, so it is either ignored or stale. The right structure keeps the policy short and stable and puts the technical requirements in standards (what must be configured) and procedures (how to do it), which IT can maintain more often. Monthly reviews, team approval or downgrading to a guideline each damage the policy's authority or its control value.

How to reason it out
  1. Spot the problem: technical detail at the policy level.
  2. Recall what each layer of the document hierarchy should hold.
  3. Recommend restructuring rather than more frequent review.
  4. Reject options that weaken approval or make requirements optional.

Exam tip: Keep policies high-level; put technical specifics in standards and procedures.

CISA IT Governance: Strategy, Committees, Policies and Enterprise Architecture — the lesson that teaches this.

Domain 3: Information Systems Acquisition, Development and Implementation

12% of the CISA exam, so 3 of the 25 questions on this page.

Question 11Information Systems Acquisition, Development and Implementation

Reviewing a development project's schedule, an IS auditor notes that a task on the critical path has slipped two weeks, and that a task with three weeks of total float has also slipped two weeks. Assuming no other changes, the IS auditor should conclude that:

Choose one.

  • a
    the end date moves by about four weeks because the two slippages add together

    The slips do not add: the task with float absorbs its two weeks, so only the critical-path delay moves the end date.

  • b
    the end date holds because the float on the second task can absorb both slippages

    Float belongs to the path it sits on; it cannot absorb a delay on the critical path, which has no float.

  • c
    the second task now sets the critical path and moves the end date by about one week

    With three weeks of float and a two-week slip, the second task still has a week of float, so it is not critical.

  • d
    the end date moves by about two weeks unless the critical-path task is recovered Correct

    Any slip on the critical path moves the end date by the same amount, while the second task's float absorbs its own slip.

The concept

Critical path analysis: delays on the critical path move the completion date; delays within a task's float do not.

Why that’s the answer

The critical path is the longest chain of dependent tasks and has zero float, so a two-week slip on it pushes the completion date out by two weeks. The other task had three weeks of total float; slipping two weeks uses up two of them and leaves one, so it does not affect the end date and does not become critical. The auditor should therefore expect a two-week delay unless the critical task is recovered, for example by adding resources.

How to reason it out
  1. Recall that critical-path tasks have no float.
  2. Apply the critical slip directly to the end date.
  3. Subtract the second slip from its float to see that one week remains.
  4. Combine both results into a single conclusion.

Exam tip: A critical-path slip moves the end date; a slip within float only uses up float.

CISA Systems Acquisition and Development: Project Governance, Business Cases, SDLC Methods and Control Design — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 12Information Systems Acquisition, Development and Implementation

Determining whether a proposed system can be built and run with the organization's existing infrastructure, tools and in-house expertise is part of the:

Choose one.

  • a
    economic feasibility assessment

    Economic feasibility compares costs with benefits to decide whether the investment is justified, not whether it can be built.

  • b
    technical feasibility assessment Correct

    Technical feasibility asks whether the solution can be built and operated with available or obtainable technology and skills.

  • c
    operational feasibility assessment

    Operational feasibility asks whether the business will adopt and use the system in its processes, not whether the technology supports it.

  • d
    schedule feasibility assessment

    Schedule feasibility asks whether the system can be delivered within the required timeframe.

The concept

A feasibility study looks at technical, economic, operational and schedule feasibility.

Why that’s the answer

Feasibility analysis tests a proposal from several angles. Technical feasibility checks that the system can be built and run with the organization's infrastructure, tools and skills, or ones it can obtain. Economic feasibility weighs costs against benefits, operational feasibility checks that people and processes will adopt it, and schedule feasibility checks the timeframe.

How to reason it out
  1. List the feasibility dimensions.
  2. Match infrastructure, tools and skills to one of them.
  3. Rule out the cost, adoption and time dimensions.
  4. Choose technical feasibility.

Exam tip: Technical feasibility: can we build and run it? Economic: is it worth it? Operational: will people use it?

CISA Systems Acquisition and Development: Project Governance, Business Cases, SDLC Methods and Control Design — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 13Information Systems Acquisition, Development and Implementation

An IS auditor reviewing a feasibility study notes that costs, benefits and the technical platform were analysed, but nobody examined whether staff and existing business processes could work with the new system. Which risk is MOST likely to go unaddressed?

Choose one.

  • a
    the system may exceed the capacity of the existing network and server platform

    Platform capacity falls under technical feasibility, which the study did analyse.

  • b
    the project may cost more than the benefits it is expected to deliver to the business

    The cost-benefit balance is economic feasibility, which the study covered.

  • c
    the system may be delivered on budget yet not be adopted by the business units Correct

    Operational feasibility, which was skipped, is what checks whether people and processes will adopt and use the system.

  • d
    the vendor may fail to deliver the software package within the agreed timeframe

    Delivery timing relates to schedule feasibility and vendor management, not to the gap described.

The concept

Operational feasibility assesses whether the organization's people and processes will accept and use a proposed system.

Why that’s the answer

The study covered economic feasibility (costs and benefits) and technical feasibility (platform), but not operational feasibility: whether users, their skills and current processes fit the new system. The risk left open is a system that works technically and is affordable, yet is resisted or worked around by the business, so the expected benefits never arrive. Capacity and cost risks were analysed, and vendor timing is a different concern.

How to reason it out
  1. Map each analysed area to a feasibility dimension.
  2. Identify the dimension that was skipped.
  3. State the risk that the skipped dimension normally addresses.
  4. Reject risks already covered by the study.

Exam tip: A system can be affordable and technically sound and still fail if the business will not adopt it.

CISA Systems Acquisition and Development: Project Governance, Business Cases, SDLC Methods and Control Design — the lesson that teaches this.

Domain 4: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience

26% of the CISA exam, so 6 of the 25 questions on this page.

Question 14Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience

An IS auditor needs evidence that the IT asset register is complete, meaning that no devices in use are missing from it. Which test BEST provides this evidence?

Choose one.

  • a
    Trace devices found by observation and network discovery scans to the register Correct

    Starting from devices that actually exist and checking that each appears in the register tests completeness, because it can reveal assets the register omits.

  • b
    Select a sample of register entries and physically locate each device

    Tracing from the register to the floor tests existence and accuracy of recorded entries; it cannot reveal devices that were never recorded.

  • c
    Reconcile the register's device count to the fixed-asset ledger in finance

    Both records can share the same omissions, and low-value devices often fall below the capitalisation threshold, so agreement does not prove completeness.

  • d
    Ask each asset owner to confirm the devices listed under their name

    Owners confirm what is already listed against them; unrecorded devices and devices with no owner are outside this confirmation.

The concept

The direction of a test determines what it proves: floor-to-register for completeness, register-to-floor for existence.

Why that’s the answer

Completeness asks whether everything that exists is recorded, so the test must start from the population of real devices, gathered by physical observation and network discovery, and look for each in the register. Testing from the register to the floor proves recorded items exist but cannot find omissions. Reconciling to the finance ledger compares two records that can share gaps (and uncapitalised devices are not in the ledger), and owner confirmations cover only listed entries.

How to reason it out
  1. Define the assertion: completeness, nothing missing.
  2. Start the test from the real population, not the record.
  3. Reject tests that begin from the register or another record.
  4. Choose tracing discovered devices to the register.

Exam tip: To prove completeness, start from what exists and look for it in the record.

CISA IT Operations: Components, Asset Management, Job Scheduling, Interfaces and End-User Computing — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 15Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience

Which of the following provides an IS auditor the BEST evidence of whether an organization complies with its software license agreements?

Choose one.

  • a
    The policy prohibiting installation of unlicensed software on company-owned devices

    A policy shows intent and direction, not whether installations actually stay within the licenses held.

  • b
    Installation counts from a discovery tool compared with purchased entitlements Correct

    Comparing what is actually installed with what was purchased directly measures compliance and reveals over-deployment.

  • c
    Approved purchase orders for each software product used by the organization

    Purchase orders show what was bought, but without the number actually installed they cannot show whether usage exceeds the licenses.

  • d
    Audit-rights clauses in the organization's contracts with software vendors

    Audit-rights clauses let vendors verify usage; their presence says nothing about whether the organization is currently compliant.

The concept

License compliance is tested by comparing actual installations with entitlements.

Why that’s the answer

Compliance means installed and used copies do not exceed what the organization is entitled to. The best evidence therefore combines both sides: an inventory of installations from a discovery or metering tool and the record of purchased entitlements. Policies, purchase orders and contract clauses each provide only one side, or only intent.

How to reason it out
  1. Define compliance as usage within entitlement.
  2. Look for evidence covering both usage and entitlement.
  3. Reject items that show only intent or only purchases.
  4. Choose discovered installations compared with entitlements.

Exam tip: License compliance = what is installed versus what was bought; one side alone proves nothing.

CISA IT Operations: Components, Asset Management, Job Scheduling, Interfaces and End-User Computing — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 16Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience

A license review shows a design application installed on 40 more workstations than the organization has licenses for, because users can install software themselves. Which recommendation BEST prevents this from recurring?

Choose one.

  • a
    Purchase enough additional licenses to cover each current installation

    Buying licenses corrects today's shortfall but leaves users free to install more copies, so the condition can recur.

  • b
    Run a quarterly discovery scan and uninstall copies found over the license count

    Periodic scanning detects and corrects excess after it occurs; it does not prevent new unlicensed installations between scans.

  • c
    Withdraw users' installation rights and deploy software through a central tool Correct

    Removing users' ability to install and channelling installs through a central, license-aware process prevents unlicensed installations at the source.

  • d
    Remind staff of the software policy and require an annual signed acknowledgement

    Awareness and acknowledgement direct behaviour but leave the technical ability to install untouched, so they are the weakest of the options.

The concept

Preventing unlicensed software means removing the ability to self-install and controlling distribution centrally.

Why that’s the answer

The root cause is that users can install software freely. Withdrawing their installation rights and distributing software only through a central tool that tracks license counts prevents recurrence. Buying licenses fixes the current gap (it is corrective), periodic scans only detect after the fact, and policy reminders rely on behaviour.

How to reason it out
  1. Identify the root cause: users can install software themselves.
  2. Ask which option removes that ability.
  3. Classify the others as corrective, detective or directive.
  4. Choose withdrawing installation rights with central distribution.

Exam tip: Stop recurrence at the cause: no self-installation, central license-tracked distribution.

CISA IT Operations: Components, Asset Management, Job Scheduling, Interfaces and End-User Computing — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 17Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience

An organization sends retired laptops to a recycler that resells them. The contract requires the recycler to wipe all drives to a recognised standard. Which evidence gives an IS auditor the BEST assurance that data on the retired drives was destroyed?

Choose one.

  • a
    The recycler's ISO/IEC 27001 certificate covering its processing facility

    Certification shows the recycler runs a management system; it does not show that the organization's particular drives were wiped.

  • b
    The contract clause requiring wiping of drives to a recognised standard

    The clause shows the requirement exists; it is not evidence that the requirement was met for any device.

  • c
    A letter from the recycler's management confirming that its wiping process is followed

    A general management assertion is weaker than device-level records and does not account for each laptop sent.

  • d
    Serial-level sanitization certificates reconciled to the disposal records Correct

    Device-level certificates tied to serial numbers, and reconciled to what the organization sent, show that each specific drive was wiped and none is unaccounted for.

The concept

Assurance over disposal comes from device-level evidence reconciled to the organization's own records.

Why that’s the answer

The question is whether these specific drives were destroyed. Sanitization certificates that list each serial number, reconciled against the organization's disposal records, prove both that wiping occurred and that every device sent is accounted for. A certification, a contract clause and a management letter are all general: they speak to the recycler's intent or system, not to the outcome for each device.

How to reason it out
  1. Identify the assertion: each retired drive's data was destroyed.
  2. Prefer evidence specific to each device over general assurances.
  3. Require reconciliation so that no device is unaccounted for.
  4. Choose serial-level certificates reconciled to disposal records.

Exam tip: For disposal, insist on serial-level sanitization evidence reconciled to what was sent.

CISA IT Operations: Components, Asset Management, Job Scheduling, Interfaces and End-User Computing — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 18Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience

Which is a benefit of using automated job scheduling software instead of operators starting production jobs manually?

Choose one.

  • a
    Each batch program processes data faster than when operators start it

    Scheduling decides when and in what order jobs run; it does not change how quickly a program processes its data.

  • b
    Jobs run from predefined, approved schedules, reducing operator error Correct

    Once job information is set up and approved, the scheduler runs jobs consistently and records their execution, reducing reliance on operators and their errors.

  • c
    Program development libraries are kept separate from production libraries

    Library segregation is a change and release management control; scheduling software does not provide it.

  • d
    Job output is backed up by the scheduler for use in restarting failed jobs

    Backup of output and restart files is a separate operations and backup function, not the benefit of a scheduler.

The concept

Job scheduling software runs approved schedules consistently and keeps execution records.

Why that’s the answer

Scheduling software holds job information, dependencies and timing set up once and approved, then starts jobs automatically and records what ran. This reduces manual operator intervention and the errors that come with it, and gives an audit trail. It does not speed up programs, segregate libraries or back up output; those are other controls.

How to reason it out
  1. Ask what the scheduler automates: when and in what order jobs start.
  2. Link that to reduced manual intervention and errors.
  3. Reject benefits that belong to other functions.
  4. Choose consistent execution from approved schedules.

Exam tip: A scheduler's value is consistent, approved, recorded job execution with less operator intervention.

CISA IT Operations: Components, Asset Management, Job Scheduling, Interfaces and End-User Computing — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 19Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience

An IS auditor compares a month of the job scheduler's execution log with the approved production schedule and finds several jobs that ran but were not on the schedule. The IS auditor should NEXT:

Choose one.

  • a
    recommend configuring the scheduler to block jobs that are not on the schedule

    A recommendation is premature before the auditor knows whether the jobs were authorized, and blocking all ad hoc runs may stop legitimate processing.

  • b
    report the unscheduled jobs to management as unauthorized processing

    Calling the jobs unauthorized before checking for approval risks reporting an incorrect finding.

  • c
    determine whether each unscheduled job was authorized and why it was run Correct

    The auditor first establishes the facts: ad hoc jobs can be legitimate if properly requested and approved, so authorization must be checked before drawing a conclusion.

  • d
    ask security to disable the accounts that submitted the unscheduled jobs

    Disabling accounts is a management action outside the auditor's role, and it assumes wrongdoing that has not been established.

The concept

Exceptions found in testing are investigated before they are reported as findings.

Why that’s the answer

Jobs outside the approved schedule are exceptions, not yet findings. Reruns and ad hoc requests are common and acceptable when they follow an authorization procedure. The auditor therefore checks each exception for a request, an approval and a business reason. Only then can the auditor conclude whether processing was unauthorized and recommend controls; disabling accounts is never the auditor's call.

How to reason it out
  1. Treat the difference as an exception to investigate.
  2. Check each unscheduled job for authorization and reason.
  3. Conclude and recommend only after the facts are known.
  4. Leave operational actions to management.

Exam tip: An exception is investigated for authorization before it becomes a finding.

CISA IT Operations: Components, Asset Management, Job Scheduling, Interfaces and End-User Computing — the lesson that teaches this.

Domain 5: Protection of Information Assets

26% of the CISA exam, so 6 of the 25 questions on this page.

Question 20Protection of Information Assets

Which control BEST protects computer equipment from short power sags, spikes and outages lasting a few minutes?

Choose one.

  • a
    A diesel standby generator with an automatic switch

    A generator takes time to start and stabilize, so it covers long outages but not instant sags and spikes.

  • b
    An emergency power-off switch beside the main exit

    An emergency power-off cuts power in an emergency; it does not protect equipment from power fluctuations.

  • c
    A second utility feed from the same local substation

    A second feed from the same substation shares its failures and does not condition power quality.

  • d
    An uninterruptible power supply with battery backup Correct

    A UPS conditions the incoming power and supplies battery power instantly during short interruptions.

The concept

A UPS covers short disturbances; a generator covers long outages.

Why that’s the answer

An uninterruptible power supply sits between the utility supply and the equipment, smoothing sags and spikes and switching to batteries without a break when power fails. Batteries last minutes, so long outages need a standby generator, which the UPS bridges while the generator starts. An emergency power-off is a safety control, and a second feed from the same substation does not remove a shared point of failure.

How to reason it out
  1. Note the duration: seconds to minutes.
  2. Recall that a generator needs time to come online.
  3. Recognise the UPS as the instant, conditioning control.
  4. Choose the UPS.

Exam tip: UPS for seconds to minutes; generator for hours.

CISA Information Asset Security: Frameworks, Physical and Environmental Controls, Identity and Access, Network Security and DLP — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 21Protection of Information Assets

An IS auditor finds that accounts of dismissed employees often stay active for up to four weeks because HR sends IT a monthly list of leavers. The organization runs an identity management system. Which recommendation BEST reduces this risk?

Choose one.

  • a
    Have line managers recertify their team's application access each quarter

    Quarterly recertification is detective and slower than the current monthly list, so the gap would remain.

  • b
    Have the identity system disable accounts left unused for ninety days or more

    An inactivity rule is a useful backstop but would leave a leaver's account usable for months.

  • c
    Have IT compare the HR leaver list with the active accounts once a week

    A weekly comparison shortens the gap but still leaves days of exposure and depends on a manual step.

  • d
    Have each HR termination record trigger disablement in the identity system Correct

    An event-driven trigger removes access as soon as the termination is recorded, closing the gap at its source.

The concept

Leaver access should be removed by an event, not a periodic report.

Why that’s the answer

The weakness is the delay between a termination and its removal from systems. Several options improve things, but the deciding factor is how quickly and reliably access is removed. Feeding termination events from the HR system into the identity management system lets accounts be disabled on the termination date with no manual hand-off. A weekly reconciliation is better than monthly but keeps both a delay and a manual dependency; quarterly recertification and a 90-day inactivity rule are detective backstops that leave much longer exposure.

How to reason it out
  1. Identify the root cause: a periodic, manual notification.
  2. Compare how long each option leaves a leaver's access active.
  3. Prefer preventive, automated removal over detective reviews.
  4. Choose the HR-driven trigger.

Exam tip: Tie deprovisioning to the HR termination event; reviews only catch what it misses.

CISA Information Asset Security: Frameworks, Physical and Environmental Controls, Identity and Access, Network Security and DLP — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 22Protection of Information Assets

An IS auditor is testing whether access is removed promptly when employees leave the organization. Which approach provides the BEST evidence?

Choose one.

  • a
    Sample closed deprovisioning tickets and confirm each account was disabled on time

    Tickets exist only for removals that were requested, so leavers who never reached IT are missed.

  • b
    Sample leavers from HR records and compare termination dates with account disable dates Correct

    Starting from the complete HR population and comparing dates tests both completeness and timeliness of removal.

  • c
    Sample active accounts and ask each user's manager to confirm the person is still employed

    Manager confirmation is weaker evidence and does not show how quickly access was removed for those who left.

  • d
    Review the leaver procedure and interview the administrators who disable the accounts

    Documentation and interviews describe the design of the control but give no evidence that it operated.

The concept

Test deprovisioning from the authoritative source of leavers.

Why that’s the answer

The test must show that every leaver lost access promptly. HR records are the authoritative, complete population of leavers, so sampling from them catches people for whom no removal request was ever raised, and comparing the termination date with the disable timestamp measures timeliness. Sampling closed tickets tests only removals that were requested, which is exactly where the control usually fails. Manager confirmation is indirect and says nothing about timing, and a walkthrough with interviews supports design, not operating effectiveness.

How to reason it out
  1. Define what must be proved: every leaver, removed promptly.
  2. Pick the population that contains every leaver: HR records.
  3. Reject populations that only include requested removals.
  4. Compare termination and disable dates for the sample.

Exam tip: To test completeness, sample from the source population, not from the control's own output.

CISA Information Asset Security: Frameworks, Physical and Environmental Controls, Identity and Access, Network Security and DLP — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 23Protection of Information Assets

Periodic recertification of user access to a finance application should be performed by the:

Choose one.

  • a
    security administrator who provisions the user accounts

    The administrator implemented the access; reviewing their own work is not independent and they lack business context.

  • b
    IS auditor during the annual review of the application

    Recertification is a management control; the auditor tests that it operates rather than performing it.

  • c
    IT service desk manager who handles the access requests

    The service desk processes requests but does not know or answer for what each finance role should access.

  • d
    business owner responsible for the application's data Correct

    The owner knows which roles each user's job needs and is accountable for the data, so the owner confirms access.

The concept

Owners recertify access.

Why that’s the answer

Access recertification asks whether each user still needs their current access. Only the business or data owner (often with line managers) has both the knowledge of job needs and the accountability for the data. The security administrator and service desk operate the provisioning process, so having them review it lacks independence and context, and the auditor performing the control would compromise audit independence.

How to reason it out
  1. Ask who is accountable for the data.
  2. Exclude those who operate provisioning.
  3. Exclude the auditor, who tests controls rather than performing them.
  4. Choose the business owner.

Exam tip: The data owner recertifies; IT provisions; audit tests.

CISA Information Asset Security: Frameworks, Physical and Environmental Controls, Identity and Access, Network Security and DLP — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 24Protection of Information Assets

An IS auditor notes that managers completed the quarterly access recertification on time, approving every user's access with no changes, often within minutes of receiving lists of several hundred entitlements. What should the auditor do NEXT?

Choose one.

  • a
    Re-perform the review for a sample, comparing entitlements with current job roles Correct

    Re-performing part of the review shows whether approvals were meaningful, which on-time completion cannot show.

  • b
    Conclude that the control operated effectively because users' access was approved

    Timely completion proves the review happened, not that it was performed with care; the pattern suggests it was not.

  • c
    Recommend that the recertification be repeated monthly instead of each quarter

    More frequent reviews of the same kind would likely be approved just as quickly and add no assurance.

  • d
    Recommend that the security team take over access approval from business managers

    The security team lacks the business context to judge need, and the recommendation is premature before testing.

The concept

A review that is completed is not necessarily a review that works.

Why that’s the answer

Blanket approvals of hundreds of entitlements in minutes are a classic sign of a rubber-stamped review. Completion on time is evidence that the control was performed, not that it was performed effectively. The auditor should obtain evidence of effectiveness, for example by re-performing the review for a sample of users and checking whether their access matches their current role (looking for movers and excessive entitlements). Changing the frequency or the reviewer is a recommendation that should follow the evidence, and the security team is the wrong reviewer anyway.

How to reason it out
  1. Spot the warning sign: zero changes and very fast approvals.
  2. Separate evidence that a control ran from evidence that it worked.
  3. Gather evidence before recommending changes.
  4. Re-perform the review on a sample.

Exam tip: Rubber-stamped reviews are found by re-performing them on a sample.

CISA Information Asset Security: Frameworks, Physical and Environmental Controls, Identity and Access, Network Security and DLP — the lesson that teaches this.

Question 25Protection of Information Assets

Employees reach the payroll system over the internet using a user ID and password. Which control would BEST reduce the risk of access with stolen passwords?

Choose one.

  • a
    Require a one-time code from an authenticator device after the password Correct

    A code from a device the user holds is a second, different factor, so a stolen password alone is not enough.

  • b
    Require passwords of sixteen characters that are changed at thirty-day intervals

    Longer, rotated passwords resist guessing but give no protection once a password has been stolen.

  • c
    Lock the user account after three failed login attempts within one hour of use

    Lockout stops guessing attacks; an attacker with the correct stolen password logs in at the first attempt.

  • d
    Require answers to security questions in addition to the password

    Security questions are another thing the user knows, so both items can be stolen the same way.

The concept

Multifactor authentication uses different factor types.

Why that’s the answer

Stolen passwords are a something-you-know compromise. Only adding a different factor type, such as something you have (an authenticator app, hardware token) or something you are, stops an attacker who holds the password. Security questions look like a second step but are another knowledge factor and are often phished or researched alongside the password. Complexity, rotation and lockout address guessing, not theft.

How to reason it out
  1. Identify the threat: the password is already known to the attacker.
  2. Recall that MFA needs factors of different types.
  3. Recognise security questions as a second knowledge factor.
  4. Choose the device-based one-time code.

Exam tip: Two things you know are still one factor; MFA combines know, have and are.

CISA Information Asset Security: Frameworks, Physical and Environmental Controls, Identity and Access, Network Security and DLP — the lesson that teaches this.

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CISA sample questions: your questions

No. Real exam questions are confidential. These are original questions written to the skills in the official CISA exam guide, so they test the same knowledge in the same style without being copies of the exam.

Source

The domains and weights on this page come from the official CISA exam guide.